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Various Insurance providers had not certified her eligible (until Jan 15 2007) to be reimbursed. She did not get a W2 from this employer, but the employer did take a small amount of her receipts (paitient co-pays) to apply to her portion of the office overhead. Does she have to pay tax on the amount used to pay a portion of her overhead for that time period? Her employer says since she did not get paid she does not owe taxes, but I contend that since the employer paid part of her office overhead, she is liable for taxes on that amount. She lives in Virginia. I know that she will receive a check eventually for the 4th Qtr 2006 and will owe tax when that is received.

2007-02-21 07:10:13 · 3 answers · asked by Steven L 1 in Business & Finance Taxes United States

3 answers

NO taxes is due for money not received. The funds used for company expanses, is a business expense and would not be taxable income. The funds that will come in for work done in 2006 will have to be reported on the 2007 tax statements.

2007-02-21 07:20:52 · answer #1 · answered by whatevit 5 · 0 0

If your friend deducted the overhead expenses on schedule C, or as a business expense, she would have to offset it by the amount of the reimbursement. This would be the best way to do it.

2007-02-21 07:28:07 · answer #2 · answered by Clay McFarland 1 · 0 0

If her terms of employment specified that a percentage of her receipts went directly to office overhead and not to her, then the receipts that went to overhead would not be taxable income.

2007-02-21 07:49:44 · answer #3 · answered by ninasgramma 7 · 0 0

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