Why did Jesus say: "why do you call me good, the only one which is good is the father"?

Question

Is Jesus professing he wasn't good? and if he IS God, divine,
why did he have to make a distinction?

Ask Mr. Religion, surely the young rich man..I believe it was...
who told this to Jesus knew of his "miracles" and had heard about him,

This man did not call Jesus a "king" or divine, he simply called him "good",

the elaborate explanation you generously give seems not to pan out, after all, if someone went around curing and healing and changing water to wine then turned around and said 'why do you call me'... (simply) 'good',
I'd say there was a bit of confusion going on with exactly WHAT Jesus wanted people to think of him.........

Answer 1

cause that jesus was crafty always speaking in parables and stuff never giving a clear meaning

Answer 2

No one followed Jesus with a pad and pen taking notes during his life. The present day King James version of the Bible was written by priests about the year 400AD who translated from the many previous versions of the Bible. There is no indication of what the circumstances were for him to make such a comment. Plus the fact that many speculate that these priests added a few things for themselves. For instance. there were no churches in those early days. People worshiped with friends in their houses. Yet we see a verse where God supposedly tells followers to financially support the church. So your guess is as good as any one's , but they are all guesses.

Answer 3

Because he is God's Son, not God himself. Ps. 83:18 shows that Jehovah is the almighty God.

Jesus also said that the "Father is greater than I". John 14:28

The New Encyclopoedia Britannica says: "Neither the word Trinity, nor the explicit doctrine as such, appears in the New Testament, nor did Jesus and his followers intend to contradict the Shema in the Old Testament: 'Hear, O Isreal: The Lord our God is one Lord' Deut. 6:4...The doctrine developed gradually over several centruies and through many controversies...By the end of the 4th century...the doctrine of the Trinity took substantially the form it has maintained ever since." (1976), Micropaedia, Vol.X p. 126

The New Catholic Encyclopedia states: "The formulation 'one God in three Persons' was not solidly established, certainly not fully assimilated into Christian life and its profession of faith, prior to the end of the 4th century. But it is precisely this formulation that has first claim to the title the Trinitarian dogma. Among the Apostolic Fathers, there had been nothing even remotely approaching such a mentality or prespective." (1967), Vol. XIV, p. 299

The Encyclopedia Americana we read: "Christianity derived from Judaism and Judaism was strictly Unitarian (believing that God is one person). The road which led from Jerusalem to Nicea was scarcely a straight one. Fourth century Trinitarianism did not reflect accurately earily Christian teaching regarding the nature of God; it was on the contrary, a deviation from this teaching." (1956) Vol. XXVII, p. 294L

According to the Nouveau Dictionnaire Universel, "The Platonic trinity, itself merely a rearrangement of older trinities dating back to earlier peoples, appears to be the rational philosophic trinity of attributes that gave birth to the three hypostases or divine person taught by the Christian churches...This Greek philosopher's (Plato, fourth century B.C.E.) conception of the divinie trinity...can be found in all ancient (pagan) religions." (Paris, 1865-1870), Vol. 2, p. 1467

John L. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible says: "The trinity of person within the unity of nature is defined in terms of person and nature which are Greek philosophical terms; actually ther terms do not appear in the Bible. The trinitarian definitions arose as the result of long controversies in which these terms and others such as essence and substance were erroneously applied to God by some theologians" (New York, 1965) p. 899

When Jesus said "I and the father are one" ...this did not mean they are the same person, put one in unison of thought. Just as a husband and wife are one.

Answer 4

Jesus is teaching that the Father is GOOD.
If you see the verse before that the person called him GOOD. Jesus was teaching the commandments at the time Matthew 19:17-19. It is natural to say that only God is good so that no one will follow commandments of men.

Answer 5

AHHHH! You're thinking about things! GOOD!! Jesus was making the destinction that he was NOT God in both instances.. Jesus recognized that his disciples wanted to give to him the worship that duly belonged to Jehovah. He was saying that he wasn't 'good' in the sense that he neither wanted or deserved the worship that Jehovah deserves... and he knew that he is God's son, not the Almighty in seperate form! If you would like to know more, you can contact your local Kingdom Hall of Jehovah's Witnesses and they would be happy to show you in your own Bible the answers to these and any other questions you might have! Happy truth hunting!

Answer 6

no, He was showing us His humbleness as of all praise, all credit, anything that He did which was good, came from the Father. Like someone could tell you oh you did something good and then you turn around and say no it was my Father. That's all He was saying. It's call worshiping God, in everything you do. Giving Him the praise and glory for your every action.

Answer 7

THe Son, the Holy Spirit and The Father are one, but are different. THey have different roles, with the same goal.
(Example: Who died? The father? No - the son. Who do we pray to? Jesus? No. To God (in Jesus's name).)

That sentence didnt mean he was saying he was not good.
He was showing respect for his Father because of his love towards human kind.

Answer 8

Christ was actually implying:

Why do you give to me a title that belongs only to God? You suppose me to be only a man, yet you give me an appellation that belongs only to God.

It is improper to use titles in this manner. As you Jews use them they are unmeaning; and though the title may apply to me, yet, you did not intend to use it in the sense in which it is proper, as denoting infinite perfection or divinity; but you intended to use it as a complimentary or a flattering title, applied to me as if I were a mere man - a title which belongs only to God. The intentions, the habit of using mere titles, and applying as a compliment terms belonging only to God, is wrong. Christ did not intend here to disclaim divinity, or to say anything about his own character, but simply to reprove the intention and habit of the young man - a most severe reproof of a foolish habit of compliment and flattery, and seeking pompous titles.

Answer 9

because he is addressing the only true god as he said himself.....john 20:17


thoe one greater than him as he said john 14:28


the one he declared to the peopel.......john 17:26


the one he will hand over that kingdom to..........1 corinthians 15:24



he is the highest....psalm 83:18



and jesus is the son of the most high.......luke 1:32

jesus is not god...but made powerful by god....philipians 2:9

Answer 10

Because Jesus was directing all glory to his Father, Jehovah God. He was not there to gain glory for himself or to garner worship for himself as Satan tried to do, Jesus, not even in his prehuman existence in heaven ever considered himself equal to God, because he is not, he is God's Son, Michael the Archangel. Philippians 2:6, 1 Thessalonians 4:16

Answer 11

Jesus was ascribing humanity to Himself by saying that to the rich young ruler. This in no way takes away from His Deity though.