He's always wanting people to eat flat, unrisen bread and wafers.
2007-02-21 02:43:42 · 18 answers · asked by Murazor 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It's not really God....at least for Jews and Passover.....
It's to honor the sacrifices of our ancestors who didn't have time to leaven the bread.
My question is...if we didn't have time to leaven the bread, when did they have the time to dip the matzoh in chocolate?
2007-02-21 02:49:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not at all. The source is the bread that the Israelites took with them when they left Egypt. It was unleavened because they left in a hurry and the bread wasn't given proper time to rise. This is commemorated each year during Passover when Jews eat unleavened bread. In the Catholic Church, and I suppose other churches where sacraments or the eucharist are used...the wafer, representing Christ's body is unleavened because the first eucharist was a Passover meal and the bread was unleavened.
Outside of that....leaven away....no worries.
2007-02-21 10:49:21 · answer #2 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
NOT always. Only in certain, ceremonial situations. It comes from the Exodus of the Jews from Egypt. They didn't have time to allow their bread to rise before "getting out of Dodge." Bread with leavening (yeast) in it molds more quickly. That is one of the reasons the British navy used to use "hard-tack" It wouldn't rot. YBIC
2007-02-21 10:49:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
God is not against leavening. Christians eat leavened bread all the time. But in Jesus's time unleavened bread was the norm. Therefore He used unleavened bread at the Last Supper, the first time the Eucharist was consecrated. Then He commanded, "do THIS [what I have just done] in remembrance of Me". Therefore we do it the way Jesus did, and we use what He used.
2007-02-21 10:48:27 · answer #4 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
God isn't against leavening.
It is used in communion because Jesus commanded us to "do this in remembrance of him."
Jesus used unleavend bread at the "last supper" because it was passover and they were remember the Exodus from Egypt when the hebrews ate unleavened bread because they left in such a hurry no one had time to let the bread rise.
2007-02-21 10:51:46 · answer #5 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
He has nothing against it.
The use of unleavened bread is in all cases a reminder of the Exodus, when the Jewish people were having to move too far too fast to allow bread to have time to rise, leaving them to eat hard flat sheets of unleavened bread.
Since the saving of the Jews in Exodus supposedly prefigures Jesus saving all humanity, the unleavened bread used in the Eucharist points to this prefigurement.
2007-02-21 10:49:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
That was Old Testament instruction, given to the Jews. It was to be done as a sign of faith and sacrifice.
The most devout still do this during holy days.
And many Christians give up something we love for Lent. Or don't eat meat on holy days.
Nothing wrong with this.
2007-02-21 10:51:02 · answer #7 · answered by kiwi 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
to leaven is to corrupt, ferment, already in the spoiling process.
Jesus told his disciples to "watch out for the leaven, (corrupt teachings) of the Pharisees and Sadducees which is hypocrisy".
Mt. 16: 6, 11, 12, Luke 12: 1.
2007-02-21 10:52:25 · answer #8 · answered by avaddohn-Apollyon 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
That refers to the night of the exodus.....
The Hebrew people were told to bake bread cakes without leaven because there would be no time to wait for it to rise.
2007-02-21 10:47:13 · answer #9 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Nothing it is for you to choose . Read again the Bible. God Bless
2007-02-21 10:48:50 · answer #10 · answered by channiek 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋