2007-02-20 16:11:23 · 8 answers · asked by WWTSD? 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
probably not, he was however the first man to pimp out his own daughters and get blessed for it
2007-02-20 16:15:16 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is a theory in some theological circles, that in the original language, it is suggested that after the Great flood when Noah planted a vineyard (Gen 9:21) and got drunk off of it. That, when that happened, and he was passed out drunk, his son Ham had sexual relations with him. Which is why he cursed Ham in verse 9:25. It's just one theory among many. Always interesting to know about and debate
2007-02-20 16:30:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you believe the bible is accurate and in addition to the term sex offender it was incest.
2007-02-20 16:15:43 · answer #3 · answered by Army Wife 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sex offenses are determined by law not by a historical comparison. Different times, different views. To answer your question, if it were to happen today...by law, he would be classified as a sexual deviant.
2007-02-20 16:17:33 · answer #4 · answered by Patrick the Carpathian, CaFO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did God even think it was his (Lot's) fault?
2007-02-20 16:19:17 · answer #5 · answered by strpenta 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Clever...
2007-02-20 16:14:44 · answer #6 · answered by Kerry 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe
2007-02-20 16:16:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Sorry Lot but that is no excuse.
2007-02-20 16:14:45 · answer #8 · answered by primamaria04 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋