The Episcopaleans and other liberal apostates in America have turned from God's way and embraced shameless sin. May they repent, lest the anger of the Lord fall upon them.
"A man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh" -Gen. 2:24
"Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable." -Lev. 18:22
"If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads." -Lev. 20:13
"And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet." -Rom. 1:27-28
2007-02-20
05:47:19
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21 answers
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asked by
koresh419
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
"Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God?" -I Cor. 6:9 (note the Greek word for "abusers of themselves with mankind" is a direct reference to the two prohibitions in Leviticus)
"'Haven't you read,' he replied, 'that at the beginning the Creator "made them male and female," and said, "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh"? So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate.'" -Matt. 19:4-6
Why, despite these frequent reiterations that the ONLY permissible sexuality is within the context of monogamous heterosexual marriage, do people continually try to claim the Bible does not speak against homosexuality?
2007-02-20
05:51:47 ·
update #1
"When the scripture is understood correctly, it implies that it would be unnatural for heterosexuals to live as homosexuals and for homosexuals to live as heterosexuals."
No. When the scripture is understood correctly, you realize that it doesn't talk about "heterosexual" versus "homosexual" or say anything about "sexual orientation." The scriptures, in their context, say the male was made for the female, and the female for the male. It is unnatural for a man to sleep with a man. That is what the scriptures say in their original context, not the decontextualized, propagandized liberal historical revisionism which you are using.
2007-02-20
05:59:18 ·
update #2
Because the bible says in end times people will do that, compremise their faith and do what is right in their own eyes.
To Zero Cool - You must really want to justify homosexuality because what you wrote is not right.
1Cor 6:9 the word used there is "Malakos", it does mean "effiminate" which means and I quote from Webster's dictionary "a man or boy having traits of softness or delicasy traditionally considered femine.
But that isn't what was translated as homosexual, it was this "abusers of themselves with men".
Roms 1:26 - 27 "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections for even their women did change the natureal use into that which is against nature,
"And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet."
The word used here is "phusikos" which means "instinctively natural". You may use the word for other purposes but it is very clear here that Paul is talking about men who burn for men behaving unnaturally, or as nature did not intend them.
And have you never read Gen 19:5-7? It says clearly that the men wanted to have sexual relations with the angels. And Lot tells them not to do "this wicked thing" to them but to take his daughters instead.
What you said is not right. These verses are clearly talking about homosexuality.
2007-02-20 05:50:57
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The reason they don't think it is a sin is that science has found homosexuality is part of someone's physical makeup--it's genetic, and their brains look different from heterosexuals.
Leviticus gives laws for the tribes of Israel, and emphasized procreation. Kindly remember that those laws also said it was wrong for a brother in law to not impregnate his dead brother's widow. There is also a time when women are considered "unclean" and the times when intercourse is to take place is when a woman is at the most fertile time of her cycle.
As for Paul, usually anything he says against homosexuals he is also saying against anyone who is spending a lot of time on sexual rather than spiritual matters. Remember that his advice was to remain celebate and unmarried--and only marry if you are weak spiritually.
I'd say that liberal Christians are reading these citations in the context of history and looking realistically at what science has shown us is a natural variation in humanity.
2007-02-20 05:56:30
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answer #2
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answered by KCBA 5
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Why do people think they have the right to judge anyone else? And to top it all off, they use they Bible, which clearly states that only GOD has the right to judge, to back up their vicious attacks. You cannot site the Bible, or any other work of faith when arguing with people who don't subscribe to that religion. It's like siting American law when debating punishments for theft with someone in another country.
You're free to feel that homosexuality is a sin, but we're free to disagree.
2007-02-20 05:56:31
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answer #3
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answered by OhKatie! 6
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The Bible does NOT condemn homosexuals and does NOT consider homosexual sex a sin.
The passages in Leviticus (18:22 and 20:13), understood IN THE CONTEXT of the time and place, are not an admonishment against loving sexual relationships between people of the same sex but instead against sex as a form of domination and control. Besides, these passages are part of the Holiness Code which is not binding to modern day Christians (or anyone else for that matter).
The story of Sodom and Gomorrah was a warning against rape, inhospitality and xenophobia. The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshiping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned. If Jude 1:7 describes anything about the sexual immorality and perversion in Sodom and Gomorrah, it's describing RAPE.
1 Corinthians 6:9 was a mistranslation of the word "malakee". It's used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.
1 Timothy 1:9-10? Also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.
The words "physin" and "paraphysin" in Romans 1:26-27 have also been mistranslated. Contrary to popular belief, the word "paraphysin" does not mean "to go against the laws of nature", but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that particular person. An example of the word "paraphysin" is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it implies that it would be unnatural for heterosexuals to live as homosexuals and for homosexuals to live as heterosexuals.
2007-02-20 05:51:40
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answer #4
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answered by ZER0 C00L ••AM••VT•• 7
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Probably because they either live in sin or don't care...either way...it's a sin not to follow God's commands. He's not asking...he's commanding.
Here's another reference in the NT.
Revelation 2:13-15 (New Living Translation)
New Living Translation (NLT)
13 “I know that you live in the city where Satan has his throne, yet you have remained loyal to me. You refused to deny me even when Antipas, my faithful witness, was martyred among you there in Satan’s city.
14 “But I have a few complaints against you. You tolerate some among you whose teaching is like that of Balaam, who showed Balak how to trip up the people of Israel. He taught them to sin by eating food offered to idols and by committing sexual sin. 15 In a similar way, you have some Nicolaitans among you who follow the same teaching.
2007-02-20 05:57:21
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Catholics make a distinction between the orientation and the act. Being homosexual, being sexually attracted to someone of your own gender, is not considered a sin. The act of homosexual sex is considered a sin.
And while you are playing at "bible quarterbacking," please go back to Leviticus and look at all the laws there about the treatment of women and slaves. If you are going to give heavy credence to one part of the law, you had better be ready to embrace the whole thing.
2007-02-20 05:51:33
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answer #6
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answered by Church Music Girl 6
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Paul Simon said it well:
"all lies in jest,
still a man hears what he wants to hear
and disregards the rest."
(from "The Boxer")
2007-02-20 06:01:38
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answer #7
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answered by wefmeister 7
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It is a sin, but it is wrong to judge a person and say that a person loses their salvation because they are gay. Its no more a sin than me sleeping with my girlfriend a claiming to be a chistian.
2007-02-20 05:52:23
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answer #8
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answered by TULSA 4
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I'm assuming because they don't follow, know about, care about or want to accept what's in the Judeochristian bible.
2007-02-20 05:50:36
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answer #9
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answered by I 3
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Different people can have thier different opinions in religion, and they also have different religion, wheather you are christian, muslim, buddhist, jewish, we all sin, Some people just sin in different ways, and their opinion its not wrong to them, Who knows what religion is right and which one is wrong, I am not sure myself But everyone has to beleive in soemthing and I think that, thats all religion is, is to give people hope and faith and to beleive in somethhing.........
2007-02-20 05:56:25
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answer #10
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answered by Artsy-Fartsy-Momma 3
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