2007-02-20 01:23:32 · 9 answers · asked by CHEESUS GROYST 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The above is the literal interpretation without bias, but it could mean all sorts of things couldn't it?
2007-02-20 01:25:10 · update #1
The phrase lay lyings has no obvious meaning.
2007-02-20 01:29:41 · update #2
Bill Mac: In transliterated Hebrew, the verse is written: "V’et zachar lo tishkav mishk’vey eeshah toeyvah hee."
The first part of this verse is literally translated as "And with a male you shall not lay lyings of a woman"
2007-02-20 01:32:20 · update #3
blackmule: a wise man questions biased and facile translations of scripture, to do that we must go to the source material to discover what is really said phrase by phrase if necessary.
2007-02-20 01:37:17 · update #4
I'm always fascinated with those who use Leviticus 18:22 as an argument against homosexuals.
They declaim it, one imagines, from a soapbox, index finger waving in the air, confident of the ultimate truth of Scripture, ignoring all of the other prohibitions in Leviticus because of their inconvenience.
2007-02-20 01:35:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
This is where translation comes into play, as you have noted, transliteration leaves us with an interesting and confusing phrase. However, when you look at the context of these verses, it is giving commands to the men of Israel about sexual conduct. With that in mind, along with Leviticus 20:13 make it very clear, under the Law, homosexuality was a detestable thing.
Although we are not under the Law in terms of being declared righteous by it --- isn't it possible that it gives a clear impression about how God feels about homosexuality, we may not be under the Law, but the principles in it help us appreciate God's thoughts on different matters (especially since this was re-iterated in the New Testament --- 1 Cor. 6:9, for example)
2007-02-20 10:01:53 · answer #2 · answered by OatesATM 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It's pretty clear to me what this verse is stating!
Leviticus 18:22
It is disgusting for a man to have sex with another man.
Chapter 18 is the laws of Forbidden Sex.
2007-02-20 09:45:15 · answer #3 · answered by calledwards 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
One can take a bible verse and twist it however he wants and make it mean whatever he wishes. A wise man reads the whole text, not just one verse.
2007-02-20 09:33:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination. -Leviticus 18:22.
Get a proper Bible, then mock.
I am sorry God isn't Gay enough for you in the OT.
2007-02-20 09:34:27 · answer #5 · answered by great gig in the sky 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
King James version: "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination."
New Internation Version: "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable."
If you honestly don't understand this, then you're not old enough to be using the computer without your parents overseeing you.
2007-02-20 09:30:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
"You shall not lie with a male as one lies with a female; it is an abomination." NASB seems clear enough to me. Don't know where your get your version.. make it up?
2007-02-20 09:30:02 · answer #7 · answered by Bill Mac 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Read the whole context.....
This is what happens when we try to pull one scripture out of context....it ends up sounding like babble.
2007-02-20 09:28:01 · answer #8 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
it could, but it doesn't.
I'm sure that hasn't stopped you, though.
2007-02-20 09:28:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋