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2007-02-20 00:21:33 · 3 answers · asked by Majimian 1 in Health Diseases & Conditions Infectious Diseases

3 answers

Yes -- one example of this is with Herpes simplex virus1 and HSV2, in which HSV1 infection normally occurs in the oral area, while HSV2 infection occurs below the waist. However, oral sex allows HSV2 infection of the oral area.

However, most STDs that manifest symptomatically in the genitalia require actual genital-to-genital contact to be transmitted.

2007-02-20 01:27:44 · answer #1 · answered by citizen insane 5 · 0 0

Yes!

2007-02-20 09:22:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yes

2007-02-20 09:06:14 · answer #3 · answered by jonnyraven 6 · 0 0

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