Homosexuality in the Bible?

Question

The Bible endorses homosexual behaviour and we shall provide one such example which is exemplified in the story of the relationship between Daniel and the prince of the eunuchs.

The verse is:

"Vayiten ha-Elohim et-Daniyel leKHesed u'leraKHamim lifnei sar hasarisim" (Daniel 1:9)

[i.e., "Now God had brought Daniel into favor and tender love with the prince of the eunuchs" (KJV).]

The Hebrew words, which describe the relationship between Daniel and the prince of the Eunuchs, are "KHesed" and "RaHamim".

The first of these indeed means "goodness, kindness, faithfulness". The word "RaHamim", however, derives from the Semitic root R-H-M, which refers to a womb.1 The KJV's rendering of "RaHamim" as "tender love" would therefore entail and indespensible element of physical love, or love which is manifested through physical contact.

Now, look at our two characters: The prince of the eunuchs is of course an eunuch. Daniel, in the opinion of the Jewish commentators, was also an eunuch.2 Hence an affair between them involving physical love would correctly be termed as a homosexual affair (i.e., between an eunuch and another eunuch).
Of course there is no "twisting" done to the sense or material of the verse, which are presented as they stand. Some may object that it is quite impossible for an eunuch to have any sexual contact. I would like to highlight this argument by pointing out an even more elementary matter: the deprivation of the testes or external genitals in a man or boy does not result in the change of sex of the same to a woman or girl. Hence the "tender love" between Daniel and the prince of the eunuchs would nonetheless remain a homosexual affair.

Secondly, the terms "eunuch" and "castration" are invariably spoken of male subjects; the correct corresponding term for females is "spaying".

Thirdly, why should one entertain the possibility that the eunuch (as in Daniel's "prince of the eunuchs"), would have to be the active sexual partner, when the common sense assigns to him the passive role?

Fourthly, it is also abundantly clear that this is not the only homosexual affair from the Bible. It is also believed that Jonathon and David too (according to the Biblical account) were more than just the "closest of friends"; they were passionate homosexual lovers.3

Hence from this brief exposition, it is inconceivable that the "word of God" would condone such a horrible and unnatural sexual act, as the Bible obviously does.

Answer 1

At the period when the Bible was written, homosexuality was not an issue. There was even no word for it. Many people, including Jesus, engaged in gay relationships and no one thought or said anything about it.
Homophobia is a very recent mental disease. It just did not exist in ancient times.

Answer 2

Question: "What was the relationship between David and Jonathan?"



Answer: 1 Samuel 18:1 states that Jonathan loved David. 2 Samuel 1:26 also records David’s lament after Jonathan’s death, where he said that his love for Jonathan was more wonderful than the love of a woman. Some use these two passages to suggest a homosexual relationship between David and Jonathan. This interpretation, however, should be rejected for at least three reasons.

First, the Hebrew word for “love” used here is not the typical word used for sexual activity. This word for “love” has clear political and diplomatic connotations (see 1 Samuel 16:21 and 1 Kings 5:1). Second, David’s comparison of his relationship with Jonathan with that of women is probably a reference to his experience with King Saul’s daughter. He was promised one of Saul’s daughters for killing Goliath. But Saul continued to add conditions upon this marriage with the underlying desire to have David killed in battle (1 Samuel 18:17, 25). The love David had received from Jonathan was greater than anything he could have received from Saul’s daughter. Third, the Bible clearly and consistently denounces homosexuality (Genesis 1:26-27; Leviticus 18:22; 20:13; Romans 1:18-25).

The friendship between David and Jonathan was a covenantal relationship. In 1 Samuel 18:1-5, we read of David and Jonathan forming an agreement. In this agreement, Jonathan was to be second in command in David’s future reign and David was to protect Jonathan’s family (1 Samuel 120:16-17, 42; 23:16-18).

Obviously, these two men were also very good friends. From their relationship we can see at least three qualities of true friendship. They are: (1) They sacrificed for one another. In 1 Samuel 18:4, we read where Jonathan gave David his clothes and military garb. The significance of this gift symbolized that Jonathan recognized that David would one day be king of Israel. Rather than being envious or jealous, Jonathan submitted to God’s will and sacrificed his own right to the throne. (2) In 1 Samuel 19:1-3, we read of Jonathan’s loyalty and defense toward David. King Saul told his followers to kill David. Jonathan rebuked his father and recalled David’s faithfulness to him in killing Goliath. (3) Jonathan and David were also free to express their emotions with one another. In 1 Samuel 20, we read of a plan concocted by Jonathan to reveal his father’s plans toward David. Jonathan was going to practice his archery. If he told his servant that the arrows he shot were to the side of the target David was safe. If Jonathan told his servant that the arrows were beyond the target, David was to leave and not return. Jonathan told the servant that the arrows were beyond the target, meaning that David should flee. After releasing his servant Jonathan found David and the two men cried together.

Rather than being evidence for a homosexual relationship in the Bible, the account of David and Jonathan is an example of true Biblical friendship. True friendship, according to the Bible, involves loyalty, sacrifice, compromise, and yes, emotional attachment. That is what we should learn from David and Jonathan. The idea that the only person in the Bible described as “a man after God’s own heart” (Acts 13:22), was a practicing homosexual (or bisexual), is ridiculous, and has no true Biblical basis.

The Bible consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). Romans 1:26-27 teaches specifically that homosexuality is a result of denying and disobeying God. When a person continues in sin and disbelief, the Bible tells us that God “gives them over” to even more wicked and depraved sin in order to show them the futility and hopelessness of life apart from God. 1 Corinthians 6:9 proclaims that homosexual “offenders” will not inherit the kingdom of God.



God does not create a person with homosexual desires. The Bible tells us that a person becomes a homosexual because of sin (Romans 1:24-27), and ultimately because of their own choice. A person may be born with a greater susceptibility to homosexuality, just as people are born with a tendency to violence and other sins. That does not excuse the person choosing to sin by giving into their sinful desires. If a person is born with a greater susceptibility to anger / rage, does that make it right for then to give into those desires? Of course not! The same is true for homosexuality.



However, the Bible does not describe homosexuality as a “greater” sin than any other. All sin is offensive to God. Homosexuality is just one of the many things listed in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 that will keep a person from the kingdom of God. According to the Bible, God’s forgiveness is just as available to a homosexual as it is to an adulterer, idol worshipper, murderer, thief, etc. God also promises the strength for victory over sin, including homosexuality, to all those who will believe in Jesus Christ for their salvation (1 Corinthians 6:11; 2 Corinthians 5:17).

Answer 3

i really think that people can live they way they choose! either gay or straight or whatever when you actuall take a look at the bible are we not all what they say is insest? God created adam and eve and adam and eve created people so are we not all related according to the bible?

Answer 4

this is another case of someone trying to misrepreesent the Holy Bible. In Sodom, the city was literally destroyed by fire and brimstone because of homosexulality. Homosexuality is sin and it is sick!

Answer 5

If your personal interpretation is true, then why is homosexuality listed as one of the ten sins that God abhors? Does God contradict Himself? If so, then God is not God. Therefore, I think not. And the conclusion, you are wrong.

Answer 6

Your mind is depraved my friend. You are twisting the scriptures to justify your lifestyle, which IS NOT OF GOD.

You can try to justify all you want, but God does NOT approve of homosexuality.

Tell me this: I was gay before giving my heart to Jesus 7 years ago. Over a period of a few months, after going for deliverance, I was set free COMPLETELY. Now tell me, why on earth would Jesus deliver me from being gay if it was so right????

No my friend, YOU DO NOT KNOW GOD AND YOU DO NOT UNDERSTAND HIS WORD.

Humble yourself before Him and He will give you sight to see, and ears to hear, and a heart to understand.

Answer 7

I like what you have to say.
Too bad you had to add in that final conclusion!