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if you’re wondering if there are Biblical passages which condemn homosexuals and homosexual acts, the answer is NO.

Most people, even priests and scholars, are unaware that the passages about homosexuality have been either misinterpreted or misunderstood.

The story of Sodom and Gomorrah? That’s a warning against rape and inhospitality. The reason for Sodom’s destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshipping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned.

Leviticus? Those passages were part of the Holiness Code which has been done away with and is no longer binding to modern-day Christians.

1 Corinthians? Mistranslation - the word malakee in this passage is used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.

1 Timothy? Also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.

Romans? In the passage the Greek words physin and paraphysin have been translated to mean natural and unnatural respectively. Contrary to popular belief, the word paraphysin does not mean “to go against the laws of nature”, but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that particular person. An example of the word paraphysin is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it seems to imply that it would be unnatural for a homosexual to live as a heterosexual and vice versa.

2007-02-19 21:56:04 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

3 answers

yes

2007-02-19 22:11:06 · answer #1 · answered by XX 6 · 0 0

seek more knowledge

2007-02-20 06:29:05 · answer #2 · answered by benito 2 · 0 0

Let it go.

2007-02-19 22:32:00 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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