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if you’re wondering if there are Biblical passages which condemn homosexuals and homosexual acts, the answer is NO.

Most people, even priests and scholars, are unaware that the passages about homosexuality have been either misinterpreted or misunderstood.

The story of Sodom and Gomorrah? That’s a warning against rape and inhospitality. The reason for Sodom’s destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshipping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned.

Leviticus? Those passages were part of the Holiness Code which has been done away with and is no longer binding to modern-day Christians.

1 Corinthians? Mistranslation - the word malakee in this passage is used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.

1 Timothy? Also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.

Romans? In the passage the Greek words physin and paraphysin have been translated to mean natural and unnatural respectively. Contrary to popular belief, the word paraphysin does not mean “to go against the laws of nature”, but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that particular person. An example of the word paraphysin is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it seems to imply that it would be unnatural for a homosexual to live as a heterosexual and vice versa.

2007-02-19 21:54:54 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

4 answers

Not this bull s h i t again.

If God created me in his own image
then he must think it's cool for me to be
GAY. And that's all there is to it................

Now get a life.

2007-02-19 22:10:41 · answer #1 · answered by popo dean 5 · 0 0

The Bible consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). Romans 1:26-27 teaches specifically that homosexuality is a result of denying and disobeying God. When a person continues in sin and disbelief, the Bible tells us that God “gives them over” to even more wicked and depraved sin in order to show them the futility and hopelessness of life apart from God. 1 Corinthians 6:9 proclaims that homosexual “offenders” will not inherit the kingdom of God.



God does not create a person with homosexual desires. The Bible tells us that a person becomes a homosexual because of sin (Romans 1:24-27), and ultimately because of their own choice. A person may be born with a greater susceptibility to homosexuality, just as people are born with a tendency to violence and other sins. That does not excuse the person choosing to sin by giving into their sinful desires. If a person is born with a greater susceptibility to anger / rage, does that make it right for then to give into those desires? Of course not! The same is true for homosexuality.



However, the Bible does not describe homosexuality as a “greater” sin than any other. All sin is offensive to God. Homosexuality is just one of the many things listed in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 that will keep a person from the kingdom of God. According to the Bible, God’s forgiveness is just as available to a homosexual as it is to an adulterer, idol worshipper, murderer, thief, etc. God also promises the strength for victory over sin, including homosexuality, to all those who will believe in

2007-02-20 04:55:21 · answer #2 · answered by Freedom 7 · 0 0

I would think the Bible has no issues with it per se..

2007-02-19 22:11:55 · answer #3 · answered by XX 6 · 0 0

you need to seek knowledge

2007-02-20 06:34:28 · answer #4 · answered by benito 2 · 0 0

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