Could it not be said that any iota of knowledge is subject to the warping brought on by language and memory/experiance?
And if so, could it be suggested that everyone is right, in some sense seeing as all you are really arguing about is what to call something relative to what you've already named.
2007-02-19 09:17:17 · 3 answers · asked by shane h 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There is a whole discipline in Philosophy dedicated to precisely these questions and the answer is no, not once you have corrected for language.
Amateur usage is another matter, for example with the word theory......
2007-02-19 09:21:02 · answer #1 · answered by fourmorebeers 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is actually an entire field of philosophical and rhetorical inquiry--how language changes the way we think (rather than the other way around). After the allowances for the differences in language have been accounted for, however, there is no reason to assume that "everyone is right." Also, much of these issues can be alleviated if everyone becomes fluent in at least two languages.
2007-02-19 09:24:13 · answer #2 · answered by N 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I agree except where you say everyone is right. If you could take their arguments in combination with the definitions they use, doing your best to ignore your own prejudices and definitions, their logic could still be flawed. But assuming their logic is correct, then they would be right.
2007-02-19 09:24:56 · answer #3 · answered by Mary K 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋