I need a Old Testament/New Testament clarification?

Question

In the past, I have asked questions regarding the laws requiring stoning for nearly any transgression, ranging from not keeping the Sabbath to adultery (these are in Leviticus and Exodus, I believe). I get a flood of answers to the effect that "that is the old covenant, christ offered the new covenant." Upshot: all that unpleasantness can be ignored.

YET. All the admonisments about homosexuality are also in Leviticus and Exodus, but THOSE are still valid.

What's going on here. If the OT is to be ignored, than so can the crap about homosexuality.

AND NO. Just so I don't get a bunch of stupid comments, I am not gay. I happen to be, if anything, sinfully straight, thank you (not that there's anything wrong with being gay!).

Answer 1

Not all the imprecations against homosexuality are in the old testament. Romans chapter 1 comes down pretty hard on deviation from the Edenic model of one man and one woman. We can get into a lot of nitpicking about the meaning of words, but I have found no place in scripture for variation from heterosexual monogamy as the only alternative to celibacy. If a person is truly sold out to Jesus Christ, I wonder that they would be self absorbed enough to demand sex at all, let alone in such a controversial way. Having a desire is not a sin; but to be attracted to the same sex or whatever your particular orientation is by no means justifies the expression and practice of it. Christendom is teeming with testimonies of people who have been able to overcome sexual stumbling blocks, and we'd do well to heed Paul's admonition, "with food and clothing be content." Anything beyond that is far and beyond what is due us, and gay rights, especially in the church, is simply expressed dissatisfaction and isn't evidence of the fruit of the Spirit. We must love everyone, gay, straight or whatever, but we should in no wise encourage behavior that doesn't conform to God's will as stated in the scriptures. Once you take a liberal approach to the interpretation of scripture, pretty much anything can be justified. We are to live Christ centered lives, not self centered ones.

Answer 2

Here's the clarification you seek...and it is contained completely within the OT.

In the OT there are several covenants between God and Man. The first of these, the one God sealed with Noah after the flood applies to all people, everywhere, at all times.

The remainder of the covenants, which provide for greater restrictions, apply only to the Jews.

One of the 7 laws in the convenant with Noah is the prohibition against sexual immorality, of which homosexuality is included.

Christian, especially those who espouse replacement theology, ie that God has rejected the Jews and cancelled those covenants claim that all the later covenants are null and void and only those commandments that Jesus taught apply.

Truth is, the penalties for violating the sabbath and other transgressions, which can include death (but rarely did), never applied to Christians at all (except for the first Jewish converts). However, the Noahide covenant still applies and it is there that the real case against homosexual acts should be made....not from leviticus (which simply defines what sexual immorality is).

Answer 3

okay... back up there. Christians, at least real ones who know what they're talking about, have not disregarded the OT. Because of Jesus Christ, we don't still need to make any kind of live sacrifice for sinning. But, we still consider all sins, in the old testament, still sins. Now, homosexuality is a different issue and by the way 9 out of the Ten commandments repeat themselves in the new testament. But, about homosexuality, yes, it was stated wrong in leviticus (OT), but it has been repeated in Hebrews (NT) and I believe in 2 other New Testament books.

Answer 4

The law of Moses starts in Exodus 20, and ends around Deut. 27. Yes, all of the law of Moses was done away when Christ died on the cross. Some of it (not all), was reauthorized by the 'new testament'. One of the 'things' presently dividing' Christianity in USA today is the 'definition' of old testament. I believe presently, scriptural 'old testament' is a synonym for the law of Moses; not Genesis-Malachi. A fuller illustration would take up a lot of time & space. Email me soon if you want more info on the point.

Answer 5

The principle difference is that in the OT times there was no permenant way of seperating us from our sin.

God provided under the OT Covenant, through the law, a form of sanctuary, an envelope of protection from Satan. By following the law they were afforded a degree of spiritual protection, if they stepped outside the law then there were "grace" rules to help them to come back under that protection, sacrifices and the like, but also punishment.

But God's NT Covenant provided us with a permenat means of being free, once and for all from all of the sin which bound us to death. God provided that seperation through Jesus and the sacrifice He made on the cross for our sins. He took on our sin and recieved our punishment, so that we would not need to. But this amazing gift, though unearned is available to all and any that would believe and put their trust in the finished work of Jesus.

Although we, through faith enter into God's gracious gift of salvation and are thereby permenantly seperated from the stain of our sin, we continue to fight against our sinful nature, but not without help, divine help that seeks to transform us from what we were, into what God knows, we can become.

Sin will always be sin, and though God hates sin, He loves the sinner. The difference now is that sinners need not remain in the stain.

As for Homosexuality, it is a lie that there is something normal about it, it is a lie that God made them that way and in case there is any doubt about it, it is condemned as sin in the NT also. As Christians however, we are not to judge the sinner, this is Jesus perogative, and as for the sin, well it has already been judged.

Answer 6

Jesus came not to destroy the Law, but to fulfil the Law. That means the the punishments in the Old Testaments are not valid, nor are the sacrifices. Jesus was the ultimate sacrifice. The difference in Homosexuality is in the Teachings of Paul, he provides the strong message that "sexual immorality" is wrong. In that day, they all knew that those two words covered everything from prostitution to homosexuality to false relgious practices involving sex.

homosexuality is a sin, but it is no more of a sin than any other, a sinner is a sinner, but we can all be saved by the Grace of God.

Answer 7

1 Corinthians chapter 6 verse 9 states this:

"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor prostitutes nor homosexuals, nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."

You make fun of us for differenciating between the old and new covenant because you don't understand the difference. But just to show you, that is in the new testament. But it's nothing that Jesus can't help a person with. We all come to Him "as we are".

Answer 8

Partial List: Romans Ch. 1 vs. 26-30 Colossians Ch 3 vs 5-7
1 Timothy Ch. 1 vs 9-10
2 Timothy Ch 3 vs. 1-7
All NT

Answer 9

maybe your Bible didn't have these pages:

The Bible consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). Romans 1:26-27 teaches specifically that homosexuality is a result of denying and disobeying God. When a person continues in sin and disbelief, the Bible tells us that God “gives them over” to even more wicked and depraved sin in order to show them the futility and hopelessness of life apart from God. 1 Corinthians 6:9 proclaims that homosexual “offenders” will not inherit the kingdom of God.

Answer 10

Homosexuality is even wrong in the New Test. Romans 1:26-27