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Here's the scripture from Exodus Chapter 3:
Verse 13 And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? What shall I say unto them?

14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

2007-02-18 05:52:19 · 4 answers · asked by Red Ant 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

4 answers

Both were to be communicated by Moses to the people.

If one of these descriptions did not impress some of the Children of Israel then the other one would. And I assume, to many of them, both statements touched their hearts as being from the right One.

These two are not conflicting statements.

Saying "I am the G-d of your fathers, the G-d of Abraham, the G-d of Isaac, and the G-d of Jacob was a direct way of relating to the people in a way that all could easily understand - that this is the same G-d of their fathers' history, who made the promise to the fathers, and has come to fulfill that promise.

Saying "I am that I am" was the kind of message that only the G-d of the Hebrews would communicate, in a world where everyone else believed in gods that were just physical. This appealed to intuitive reasoning of some of the people as a statement of hope that could only come from their unique G-d.

2007-02-18 06:50:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

THE NAME OF GOD TO THE WORLD IN ALL LANGUAGES

I do not know how the bible was to spread around the world, but it was here in my
lifetime, the KJV Bible 1611 published, is not exactly my language in English, it is most
difficult to study, but not impossible, but at 303 years to 1914 after Christ and an excepted translation by law of man and God, the Name of God to Abraham was Jehovah at Gen.22:14;
For Moses at Exo.3:6; 17:15; The name of God is Jehovah.
For David Psm.68:4; 83:18; The name of God is Jehovah.
For Isaiah at Isa.12:2; and 26:4; The name of God is Jehovah.

In the mouth of two or three witnesses, and by the law of man and God, it is proper.

The same will apply in all languages and to a more proper translantion as we can look at this as a sample, we are to have the word of truth in the end times and that is how it came to be.
People have to be careful, bible hell and some imagination place is wo different things.
It says, "know the truth." John 8:32; 17:17; So there is the obligation to get it right.
If hell is sepulchre, tomb, cave, grave or burial place, we must get it right and be glad
we have a translation that will allow it to be done.

At Luke 23:43; Jesus promised paradise [ we know Eden was and all was perfect ];
there was a tree of life, and there will be again in the paradise of God and that is what will exist at the end 1Cor.15:22-28,51-53; of the 1000 year reign of Christ Rev.20:1-6,12,13; and all perfect will be in the kingdom paradise of God. Rev.2:7;

2007-02-18 14:57:57 · answer #2 · answered by jeni 7 · 2 0

I don't see what this has to do with paradise. The scriptures you quoted tell God's personal name, Jehovah; Very good scripture. But I'm not sure what the question is.

2007-02-18 16:41:06 · answer #3 · answered by KaeMae 4 · 0 0

http://www.rightwingwatch.org/2006/11/robertson_says.html

2007-02-18 16:02:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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