Suppose there are two shareholders of a company, and both agree that only one should receive a dividend. How can the other person correctly waive the dividend? Can anyone point me to something that provides more info on this?
2007-02-17
15:00:41
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3 answers
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asked by
presidentrichardnixon
3
in
Business & Finance
➔ Taxes
➔ United Kingdom
I already own the same class of shares as the other person.
2007-02-17
15:45:05 ·
update #1
This is because we have mutually agreed that one person should extract cash from the company, but not the other.
2007-02-18
04:04:53 ·
update #2