Why do sertain groups of people get specific deseases? What explanation does the Bible give us. I am particularly interested in FMF.
2007-02-17 12:21:23 · 8 answers · asked by XenT 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
This might seem to be a heath question, but it isn't. I need a thological explanation.
2007-02-17 12:22:37 · update #1
Incredible.
You ask about genes and the answers you get are about "original sin."
Absolutely incredible.
2007-02-17 13:30:46 · answer #1 · answered by Voodoid 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible says that humans were designed to live forever on a paradise earth. In Genesis, Adam and Eve broke the only law they were given and chose to rebel against that arrangement. That was the birth of sin, which simply means to miss the mark of perfect obedience to God.
Romans 5:12 tells us "Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned."
As a race, we all inherited imperfection. The Bible also tells us that sometimes bad things just happen to us for no reason at Eccl 9:11 "Time and unforeseen circumstances befall all of us."
God has not caused certain illnesses to affect certain people. It's just the way our inherited sin has displayed itself throughout the generations.
The good news is that the Bible promises that God is going to reverse all the effects of inherited sin (genetic disease and all) when he restores paradise to earth.
To voodoid: The question asks what the Bible says about genes. The Bible doesn't say anything about genes or genetic science, so we can't answer that specifically. The asker also qualified that this is a theological question, not a health question. So answers about "original sin" are appropriate.
2007-02-17 12:36:06 · answer #2 · answered by horsenbuggy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm sure God would have a lot to say about genes. I mean, our actions and habits have a huge part in how we have evolved. There is so much information here I don't understand, and as I'm sitting trying to figure out how to answer this, a hundred other questions come.
2007-02-17 12:44:19 · answer #3 · answered by rezany 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the answer to your question you will have to look to the first book of Genome, second chapter, fifth verse on FMF. Likewise, the second verse of Polio Vaccine talks about a more specific disease and how God cured it.
2007-02-17 12:26:58 · answer #4 · answered by valcus43 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Theologically, the world was perfect until Adam and Eve sinned. Man wrought all this disease on himself. Prior, when they were in harmony with the Lord there was no disease, no need for clothes, the weather was perfect, man did not eat meat, he lived in harmony with all of Gods creation. Then sin separated him from God and all the problems started.
Cheers!
2007-02-17 12:28:00 · answer #5 · answered by iamwhoiam 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hepatitis would be led to by ability of quite a few motives, the main straightforward of them are viruses and none of them are genetic. regardless of the undeniable fact that, some hepatitis viruses would be transmitted for the time of the placenta from the mummy to the child, which will have lead you to think of that that's a genetic ailment.
2016-11-23 15:46:30 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think the Bible addresses that. But this was a good reason to have the laws for people not to marry into their own family.
2007-02-17 12:25:49 · answer #7 · answered by RB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When sin entered the world (Adam and Eve's sin), so did sickness and pain and death
2007-02-17 12:29:06 · answer #8 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋