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John 9: 1-2......The deciples and Jesus pass a man from birth and ask Jesus if he is blind because of the sins of his parents or his own sins. Well if they think it could be because of his own sins then he must have existed before birth, right?

2007-02-17 11:48:42 · 27 answers · asked by Dellajoy 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Sorry, I made a mistake....they pass a man who is blind from birth...and ask if it's because he sinned or his parents sinned.

2007-02-17 11:49:47 · update #1

You people aren't getting this...if the deciples thought the man was blind at birth from possibly his own sins then maybe they had insight into an existense before the man was born. It doesn't matter what Jesus replied so much as the fact that the question was even asked.

2007-02-17 11:55:08 · update #2

27 answers

Is it possible that these disciples had been influenced by the belief of the Jewish Pharisees, who said that "the souls of good men only are removed into other bodies?" (Wars of the Jews, Josephus, Book II, chap. VIII,par 14) It is not likley , since their question does not imply that they thought he was a 'good man'. It is more likely that as Jesus' disciples they believed the Scriptures and knew that the soul dies. Yet, since even a baby in the womb has life and was conceived in sin, they may have wondered whether such an unborn child could have sinned, resulting in his blindness. In any event, Jesus' answer did not support either reincarnation or the idea that a child yet in its mothers womb sins before birth. Jesus himself answered: "Neither this mans sinned nor his parents." (John9:3) Jesus knew that, because we are offsprings of Adam, there is an inheritance of human defects and imperfections. Using the situation to magnify God, Jesus healed the blind man.

Gen 2:7 Shows that man himself is a soul and it is not immaterial, separate and distinct from the body.

Ezek. "The soul that is sinning it itself will die.

Numbers 6:6 referred to a deceased person as a dead soul

Eccl. 9:10 All that your hands finds to do, do with your very power, for there is no work nor devising nor knowledge nor wisdom in sheol, the place to which you are going."

( it is not into another body, but into sheol, the common grave of mankind, that the dead go)

2007-02-17 12:21:45 · answer #1 · answered by Vivimos en los Ultimos Dias 5 · 1 0

You must see this question from the cultural perspective of the disciples. They were Jewish men who already came form a position of believeing man lived once and then was judged. The current teaching of the time stated that misfortune came either from our sins or our parents sins. Jesus corrected his disciples and said it was neither reason but so that "God could be glorified" and he healed the man's blindness.

Sorry, it has nothing to do with reincarnation. In addition, even Buddha did not see reincarnation as an end in itself, but something to be avoided by hopefully reaching Nirvana.

The bible says that "It is appointed unto man ONCE to die, and then the judgement"

I hope you are secure in your hopes for reincarnation. The bible alone has history, archeology and prophecy backing up its claims as the Word of God. Buddhist, new age and Hindu beliefs have nothing close. It is all sort of a 'best guess' philosophy.

2007-02-17 12:00:26 · answer #2 · answered by Christopher 2 · 1 0

In the Old Testament, the sins of the fathers are passed down through generations. This is what they were asking about. It had nothing to do with reincarnation. And man is born with original sin to begin with.They were asking Jesus if he was blind because of sin in his life.

2007-02-17 11:54:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This has nothing to do with reincarnation. The disciples when asking Jesus about what caused the blindness. They were reflecting a common perception about health and disease in the ancient world. In their minds, physical maladies and suffering were the result of sin and or God's judgement. Actually people still feel this way about sickness, was it caused by sin or God's judgement, example, Aids. Jesus responded to them with a radical truth that God can use human suffering to reveal His glory. Then Jesus did heal that man. This verse is about sickness and the healing power of God.

2007-02-17 13:02:26 · answer #4 · answered by angel 7 · 0 0

A very good question, It must be remembered that it was one of the disciples who asked this question and he may have not been totally aware of what he was asking. ie he made a mistake. People do this and the disciples got things wrong all the time and Jesus had to correct them. Thats one way that they learned.

However the verse's intention is clearly not to support reincarnation or to dismiss it. It's intention is to point out that not all bad things happen to people because of sin. It is to point out that God can use adversity to glorify himself and to show his kind nature. John 9:1-3

It is very dangerous to build doctrine on a verse that is nothing to do with the subject especially when there are verses that are much more clear on the mater eg.

"it is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment," (Heb. 9:27)

This verse is clear in what we should be believe about reincarnation. We die "once" then we are judged to see if we have broken gods laws.
If we have we are punish accordingly.
If we have not we are rewarded.

Ask yourself the question are you a good person. If you said yes goto http://www.needgod.com and take the test to see if you do need God.

2007-02-17 12:21:33 · answer #5 · answered by Heath 2 · 0 0

Hebrews 9:27, which states that it is appointed to man to die once, and after that face judgment...

I see what you're saying, "How could it be for his own sins if he was blind since birth?" Although I think reincarnation makes some sense (most things of the natural world are cyclical), there is only sketchy evidence that it is Biblical. The evidence for linear lives is much more prevalent...

2007-02-17 11:52:40 · answer #6 · answered by Eleventy 6 · 1 0

In those days, people believed that every problem or sickness was attributable to someones sin. In one sense it is true, we can blame Adam and Eve. The bible teaches that since the fall of Adam and Eve, sin has entered the world. Degeneration of body cells through various things can cause various diseases. All this because mankind sinned and the world was no longer perfect. (Romans 5:12) However, Jesus later explained that God used that man's blindness to glorify himself by miraculously healing his blind eyes. Hallelujah. And he is the same yesterday, today, and tomorrow.

2007-02-17 12:01:53 · answer #7 · answered by Roberta F 1 · 1 0

I think your question is very valid. However, I must assert strongly it's clear YOUR "not getting" it. All the previous posters that stated this is to show the sins of previous generations is correct. This is where the 'personal intreptations' gets all haywire.

The possibly you MAY chose to get your information from Shirley MacLaine in her book, "Out on a Limb", gives insight into where you chose to get your information. For that, I am sorry.

I truly believe that you are confused. I think you thinking of a thought process it's rather old really; originated from Origen he believed that souls exsisted in in heaven before coming to earth to be born. The inherent confusion may come from the belief in the preexistence of the soul with reincarnation and claim that Origen was a reincarnationist. Actually, he was one of the most prolific early writers against reincarnation!

Many blessings. I hope this assisted you. Please email me for a more personal in depth discussion if you so desire.

2007-02-17 12:08:59 · answer #8 · answered by Michelle_My_Belle 4 · 0 0

No, the sins of the fathers are passed down to the children for so many generations. This is what he was talking about, the askers were stupid in asking such a question.

2007-02-17 11:58:58 · answer #9 · answered by ? 7 · 0 0

while you're relating Jesus=God, i've got self belief all of it relatively got here from the Nicean Creed. i've got not got my scriptures with me, yet i understand there are verses that advise the two techniques. i understand lots particularly lots say Jesus is God, the father and that i are one, etc. etc. individually, i do no longer think they're actually a similar being simply by fact lots in the Bible shows separation "The Son of God", conversing to the father, etc. As for what the Apostles have self belief... hmm... something suggested in the Apocrypha?

2016-10-02 07:48:12 · answer #10 · answered by mcfaul 4 · 0 0

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