If God isn't the son of man then how is the son of man God?

Question

Numbers 23:19
God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind. Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill?


It sound like really bad logic to me

A is not B
but
B is A

Please explain.

Answer 1

The same reason pink marbles cant be blue marbles and blue marbles cant be pink marbles. Get it

Answer 2

Jesus had two sides to Him, His Diety, the Only Begotten Son of God (Word of God); and His humanity, the seed of the Woman (Israel).

God isn't a human. Jesus is when the Word of God (God) put on humanity & dwelt among us as one of us. That was a total new thing. Jesus was 100% human who operated by the Power of the Holy Spirit (He is our example). It was in His humanity (like the 1st Adam before the fall) that He obeyed to the point of death on the cross & in His humanity, raised from the dead overcoming the fear of death. For us and so we can receive everlasting life and resurrection from the dead.

Jesus Christ in His humanity is the resurrected Savior and High Priest forever, because he atoned for our sins once and for all. God has highly exalted him with a name above all names, that at the Name of Jesus (in His humanity) every knee shall bow & tongue confess, Jesus Christ is LORD, to the Glory of God the Father.

Also, if the Son of David Is the LORD, then how is the LORD the Son of David?

Jesus in His humanity didn't lie, nor did He repent, because He was without sin. God speaks and keeps His promises. Sometimes God will repent (change His mind) of a proclaimed judgment on someone, because the person repented, etc... But Gods Word (plan) will come to pass, in His time.

Answer 3

Well your logic is fuzzy with B and A since God is not a man nor is God the son of a man. That's what he said there.

Answer 4

in John 3:16 we are told God The Father sent Jesus [the second member of the Godhead] to save us, we are told also in John 1:14 that the Word was made flesh and in verses 1-5 same chapter we are told God was and is The Word, He was fully man and fully God, He was all the person of The Godhead in John 8:58 He is The I AM and is all of God we can see and live. Adam failed God's test so Jesus came in his place so to live the life without sin so He can "IF" we meet the conditions upon which life is offered give life to all, find out more free bible lessons www.itiswritten.com bible questions www.bibleinfo.com God bless email me also [e-mail]

Answer 5

Son of Man = Ben Adam = Son of Adam.
Jesus Christ was a bonafide member of the human race.
"Christ Jesus, who although He existed in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be held onto, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
Therefore God has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name..." (Philippians 2:6-9)

Answer 6

Yes, he isn't the son of man. He was the Son of God born of man.
That verse is talking about the immutability of the divine counsel is the safety of the saints. No entreaties of our foes can move the heart of God away from us: we are his chosen, and we shall be so evermore. Every promise is yea and amen in Christ Jesus, and not one single word of the Lord shall ever fall to the ground. Men shift like quicksand, but the Lord is firm as a rock.

Answer 7

SON OF MAN - New Testament designation for Jesus as God incarnate in flesh and agent of divine judgment. It occurs some 84 times in the Gospels, all but one being Jesus' self-description.

The Old Testament - With the exception of Ezekiel and Daniel, the term "son of man" appears in the Old Testament as a synonym for "man," "humankind" (Isa. 56:2; Jer. 50:40; Psalms 84:4, 80:17; 146:3; Job 25:6) In the Aramaic language spoken in Palestine in Jesus' day, the expression "son of man" was similarly used to mean "the man," "a man," or simply "someone." The term appears in the rabbinic writings with the meaning, "a certain person."

Answer 8

Balaam is delivering a message to Balak from God.
Balak wished God to curse Jacob and denounce Israel.

God had made promises to Jacob and Israel and was not about to break that promise. God thru Balaam was letting Balak know the God cannot be bribed or bought.

Answer 9

The First Chapter of John is my reference for this.

Jesus was born of a woman. He was fully aware that the spirit inside him was that of GOD. He was alive before anything that was was created and knew this. He was also fully human. We are also human and we are aware that something inside us is bigger then this mere body that we live in. We have a dim view that we are eternal beings. Jesus was fully aware of who he is. He is GOD. GOD has three parts. Father Son and Spirit. The Son came to earth,

The Scripture you quote is there to explain that GOD is not a blundering fool like we are in the flesh. He can not lie because he is the truth. He can not go back on his word because he is the word of creation.

I hope this makes some kind of sense.
Shalom.

Answer 10

Son of Man is just a title used in ancient times. It means a human being. There is God, and there is the "son of man," which means humans, not God.

Answer 11

I think you are confused about the passage. It isn't saying god is the son of man. It is saying God isn't a man and he isn't the son of man because he doesn't lie or change his mind. It is saying lying and being indecisive are strictly human traits.