Also: Has anyone considered petitioning congress to institute doctorates in church science? Would that be funny or serious or both?
2007-02-17 07:59:51 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Immaculate conception is based on a mistranslation. The Hebrew word 'young woman' was translated into 'virgin'. And in any case, it's impossible: human gametes cells only contain half the chromosomes needed for a human child.
2007-02-17 08:04:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since Mary's pregnancy was only an excuse to get out of trouble for her premarital sex, meiosis played a role... Go Joseph!
On the other hand, the only other explanation is that sky god is a pedophile rapist...
And a degree in "creationism" (LOL! Like such a thing actually exists!) would have nothing to do with Mary's hoo-hoo, but in trying to lie about the facts of science...
2007-02-24 16:21:18 · answer #2 · answered by jtim24 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The immaculate conception refer's to Mary's conception without sin in her mother's womb.
Better get a degree in basic theology first.
2007-02-17 16:38:18 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Given that Jesus was human he must have had a full set of chromosomes, so 50% god 50% Mary and if not then what?
2007-02-17 08:06:32 · answer #4 · answered by fourmorebeers 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋