Why did the New Testament alter David's words?

Question

King David declares in Psalm 40:6 that

"Sacrifice and meal offering You have not desired; but my ears You have opened; burnt offering and sin offering You have not required."

These words of the Bible hardly agree with the Christian doctrine that sin can only be expiated through the shedding of blood. Because the Psalmist's words were deeply offensive to the early church, Hebrews 10:5-6 altered Psalm 40:7 to read instead

"Sacrifice and offering You did not desire, But a body You have prepared for Me. In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin You had no pleasure."

johnny cee

It's altered in all versions

Mahal

If Masoretic Text is wrong, why do Christians use it? How can you use a corrupted book?

Source(s)
biblegateway

http://www.nccbuscc.org/nab/bible/psalms/psalm40.htm

3 [7-9] Obedience is better than sacrifice (cf 1 Sam 15:22; Isaiah 1:10-20; Hosea 6:6; Amos 5:22-25; Micah 6:6-8; Acts 7:42-43 [quoting Amos 5:25-26]). Hebrews 10:5-9 quotes the somewhat different Greek version and interprets it as Christ's self-oblation.

Answer 1

In your Qu'ran, Is a story which though corrupted by Muhammad still reflects God's plan of salvation for his people through atonement. It is originally the story of God commanding Abraham to sacrifice Issac...In the Qu'ran the story was changed to reflect Ismael this corruption of scripture was for the obvious reason that Muhammad was Arabic ...but the meaning is still the same many things were left out but clearly God asked for a human sacrifice and in place of Issac Abraham's son he provided himslef a lamb. argue with your own Allah because as I stated the scripture was corrupted it still shows God's plan to provide a lamb of salvation. Ask yourself this even oin your corrupt version of the story was Ishmael's life spared by the blood atonement of a lamb?

Answer 2

This scripture is referring to the Blood of Jesus. He died once for all sins (for all people), the ultimate sacrifice. Therefore, there is no need for another. When He died he said, "It is finished" referring to the fulfillment of the Law of
Moses which no mortal man could ever keep (due to the sin nature). The flesh Body that he is referring to Jesus' body, which Jesus took on when He came to earth (in the flesh). You see a lamb or goat could only atone for our sins (cover them over until the next year, and a ritual would have to be repeated). Remember the New Testament was written by man, and has been translated many times, so you will see then that as you see now even there are persons who are Christians, they are not perfect. But we do know that anyone who does not teach "compassion and forgiveness" is not following Jesus completely. Jesus' ministry was based on these two. They are attributes of LOVE. God is Love. There is no law against love. (Romans 13:10)

Answer 3

You're reading from the wrong version, one based on the Masoretic Text of the OT. The writers of the NT used the Septuagint, and this is the way that verse reads in the Brenton Version of the LXX:

"Sacrifice and offering thou wouldst not; but a body hast thou prepared me: whole burnt offering and sacrifice for sin thoud didst not require."

Looks like a dead on match to me (though in my version it's Psalms 40:6).

(Are you a Muslim? If so, can you tell me why Islam shamelessly tries to alter the OT by inserting Mohammed everywhere, by saying Judas died on the cross and by saying that Abraham sacrificed Ishmael, though the passages of the OT and the NT clearly say otherwise? I've even seen Muslims try this in Hindu books!)

Answer 4

The Old Testament is a precursor to the New Testament. God was never satisfied with the shed blood of animals to atone for man's sin. God instituted the law to pave the way for the coming of Jesus Christ and his sacrifice, which satisfied God. The entire Bible is God's Word; therefore, there are no alterations, conflicts, contradictions, changes or errors. God said what he meant and means what he said. The Bible must be taken in its entire context to be understood. This takes a lifetime of study and guidance by the Holy Spirit, as well as scholarly instruction. I learn something new every day.

Answer 5

Heb 10:10 - By this "will," we have been consecrated through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

The body of Jesus is added to the scripture so that it is clear Jesus is not working under the same laws as in the old testament but rather getting the Jews ready for a new set of laws (or new testament) that will no longer require animal sacrifices.

Answer 6

The Psalm is prophetic in that it speaks of a time when no new offerings will be required.

The one time, once for all sacrifice of Jesus on the cross at Calvary is the event that this Psalm anticipated ... the same event that is described in detail in Psalm 22.

In that respect, a slight variance in translation means little.

Answer 7

i do no longer understand what a tetragram is, yet in maximum bibles, tremendously the King James version the word Lord is substituted for Jehovah particularly much 7,000 cases. Thats for the two the previous and new testaments.

Answer 8

dont waste your time with these christians they are all apologetics and they..... oh wait a minute your a muslim god isnt real its a made up entity and psalms were just poems written by some tribal cheiftan that the jews said was a great king yet there are no facts to support this the old testament embelished history

Answer 9

Point of interest:

(Apostle's Bible) Ps 4:6, "6Sacrifice and offering You did not desire; but a body You have prepared for me; whole burnt offering and sacrifice for sin You did not require. "

(LXX) “Sacrifice and offering you did not want, but you prepared a body for me. . . ." (Taken from a reference)

Obviously, using more than one translation pays off.

Very interesting question!

Answer 10

You are reading a translation. In the original there is no difference.
I Cr 13;8a