Read below:
Truly this man was the Son of God” (Mark 15:39).
The same confession of the same centurion at the same scene, at the very moment, is reported in Luke also. But in Luke the Centurion is reported as saying:
“Certainly this man was innocent” (Luke 23:47).
and below does not make sense. It is obvious somebody has replace the word "god" with "good" as the word "god" fit perfectly in the statement compare to "good".
Mark 10:18 "Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered.
"No one is good -- except God alone.
2007-02-16 16:45:47 · 14 answers · asked by halo 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I believe that no one call Jesus god at that time, this goes to show it was fabricated by the writers.
2007-02-16 17:20:41 · update #1
.....I'm still stuck on why some Christians say Jesus was God when your first quote CLEARLY indicates that he was not God.
2007-02-16 16:49:43 · answer #1 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It's not a disparity, the different books of the scripture show different aspects of the same event. Why couldn't he say "Certainly this man was innocent. Truly this man was the Son of God" or vice versa? Each of the gospels are written differently but some capture ideas that others have not. It doesn't mean that one is right and the other is wrong.
In Mark 10:18 Jesus is saying that there is no human that can be considered "good" since all are sinners. Jesus was correcting the man's thinking in that eternal life could be obtain by good works. Eternal life cannot be obtained by good works because we will eventually fail at one point in keeping the entire law. We see this in the next few verses where Jesus asks the young man to do something he cannot do.
2007-02-17 01:37:44 · answer #2 · answered by Archangel 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus was crucified for Blasphemy. This is why the centurion says what he says in Luke 23:47.
It is saying in essence, the same thing as Mark 15:39.
Jesus is teaching in Mark 10:18, that God is the source of all good.
2007-02-17 00:56:04 · answer #3 · answered by great gig in the sky 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
In spiritual warfare, there's a definate good and evil. God and His angels are the good force. The devil and his demons are the evil force. There are no other forces at work in spiritual warfare, so God can be the only good one. The centurion probably came to this realization. Different people who witnessed the crucifiction saw it differently, because of their backgrounds. This is how you have different versions of Jesus' time on earth. None is wrong, they just pull from different experiences. The centurion may have said somethin like "Surely this man was innocent, because he was the Son of Man." He would have said both, but one witness would have seen one part as more relevant than the other part.
2007-02-17 01:00:01 · answer #4 · answered by pish_01 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I totally agree with you.
What kind of sadistic ruler will ask for brothers to kill brothers, just so as to send a message of deterrance to the people not to worship pagan gods. (I can't remember which verse, but its the chapter in the 1st testament when Moses came down and saw people praying to pagan Gods.)
Its like those times in history when massacres were ordered upon cities that refuse to yield.
And if you read the first testament closely, you will realise that many rituals involved blood.
Not to say the least, but I think the character in the bible who was willing to sacrifice an innocent baby just to prove his loyalty, proved nothing except that he was a psycho too.
Imagine if someone ask you to sacrifice your first born to prove your loyalty to the country.
Absolutely crazy stuff.
I think religion are just formed by fanatics of old story books.
Who knows we might have a new religion in the future based on Harry Porter...
2007-02-17 03:35:43 · answer #5 · answered by Xanana 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the third verse, the word 'good' is correct - not a mistake. Jesus is saying that God the Father is the only one who is good. He is humbling Himself before His Heavenly Father, God in heaven.
2007-02-17 00:49:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
You think the passage read "No-one is God but God alone"?? Kind of self-obvious isn't it? Besides, why would anyone of the time call Jesus God?
2007-02-17 00:55:23 · answer #7 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I would speculate that what he meant is he is bearing the sins of all of humanity, and as such he is (in the sense that he was speaking) not to be called good. He was manifested for our forgiveness, and forgiveness is not because of good or perfection. Good is perfect and has nothing to do with forgiveness. These are my thoughts on this, in any case.
2007-02-17 00:54:31 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yeah, ok, because you know more than the authors of the Bible, right? Yeah, you and God must be tight like that, huh?
2007-02-17 00:49:14 · answer #9 · answered by Smeather 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Yeah, what a scholarly answer.
I suppose you now qualify as bible teacher?!
2007-02-17 05:31:01 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋