Does he have a psycological problem?
Is he emotionally disturbed?
Is he a pedophile?
Is he a pervert?
Could there be any other explanation?
If you use the questions above to answer this question then please copy and paste the questions onto your answer.
2007-02-16
12:53:30
·
1 answers
·
asked by
devotionalservice
4
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Singles & Dating
How about a guy needs to work on being educated enough that by the age of fifty he isn't attracted to women for sex. This should be the ideal. If this is not possible, then the norm should be that a man in his fifties should only be attracted to his legal wife for sex. It seems that anything less than this might be considered in the mode of ignorance.
Read Bhagavad Gita As It Is
http://www.asitis.com
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/vegetariancounseling
Higher Taste: Online Vegetarian Cookbook!
http://www.webcom.com/ara/col/books/VEG/ht/
2007-02-22
08:49:34 ·
update #1
Anything that is attractive about a woman on the material plane has to do with reproductive instincts and psycology. These instincts can be very strong and overpowering.
If a woman uses her sex-appeal for bewildering the minds of others for the sake of cheating them out of money then this would probably be in the mode of ignorance.
If a woman uses her feminine attractiveness for the sake of business advantage or politics then this would be the mode of passion.
And if a woman uses her feminine attractiveness for the sake of making a legal marriage work then that sounds more like the mode of goodness.
2007-02-22
08:53:20 ·
update #2