A steady decline in I.Q
2007-02-16 02:42:16
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answer #1
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answered by king_sigh 3
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Well, when written out, the dates were like December 11, 2007. Then, if it was written in that order as 11/12/2007, then people would read it as November 12, 2007. Computer software programming had some to do with the date change. Old English words were constantly changed through the centuries, and it will never end. Some people don't notice or care that the spelling of a word changes. Many words that dropped the 'u' were English adaptations of words of French and Latin origin.
2016-05-24 06:46:13
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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Sorry to say it, but it is in fact in the UK where the spelling has changed over the years. At the time of the Brits colonizing the American continent, words such as favor, flavor etc were spelt this way. It's only since that time that 'English' English has evolved (and American English hasn't) to include the 'u' in these words. Those of you who state that it's to differentiate the new American nation from Britain are wrong, quite simply. Other notable differences such as American - a half hour English - half an hour are also due to this phenomenon. 'English' English has constant influence from the nations around us, which is why we use words such as 'rucksack' which Americans don't tend to, whereas American English doesn't have such outside influence.
2007-02-16 05:51:16
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answer #3
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answered by Paul S 1
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I don't think it is just America, there is also Canada/ Australia/ India/ Malta/ South Africa and many more.
There are so many different coutries that spell certain words differently due the their usegae and dialect.
Even in the UK this happens. I moved from a very well spoken area in the South West of England to Barnsley in South Yorkshire, which is a town with a very localised accent/dialect and use of words... I will attempt to list a few of them for you phonetically with a definition:
snap = Lunch
spice = sweets
whata = water
lite = light
Cioat = coat
Lakin = playing
bearn = baby
sen = yourself
And those are but a few. It just shows the amazing way in which human languages develop. Due to America's dominance over the world many of it's spelling and new words/phrases are now being used in England instead of English.
Don't forget English is just a bastardised mix of Latin/ French/ Itallian/ Spanish/ Portugise/ German/ Dutch and many many more.
See my sources for more info:
2007-02-16 15:45:10
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answer #4
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answered by dazzler161281 2
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Language changes and evolves, that's it's nature. For ages there wasn't even a written dictionary, you may have noticed that today's English population don't have the same manner of speaking that people in the Elizabethan era did...why? Because things change.
The US is a completely different country, why would it follow the same linguistic path? The French spoken in Paris is quite different from that spoken in Montreal....it's a normal progression.
I must say, quite a lot of you are pretty hostile. England does not own the English language, not did they create it fully formed from the air. English was made up of bits and pieces of other languages, yet I hear no complaints from those nationalities about "misuse" etc....
2007-02-16 14:58:30
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answer #5
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answered by slipstreamer 7
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For the very same reasons (and others) that caused the Iberians to start spelling and pronouncing Latin in a different way and ended up with Spanish, Portuguese, Catalonian and Galician. And the Gauls to end up with French and the English to evolve from a mixture of Germanic dialect, Old French, Gaelic and Latin to present day English. Even the Italians that were originally native Latin speakers evolved their speech to create Italian. Given the origins of the early Anglo-Saxon settlers (mostly peasants and poor burguers), the admixture of Germans, Dutch, French, Irish and the myriad of other emigrants, the modification of the language is inevitable.
2007-02-16 07:56:49
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Webster was mainly responsible. Their spelling was standardised when he published his dictionary.
I don't begrudge them their spelling, as long as it's recognised as American (not English). Because at least most Americans spell correctly by their language standards, which is more than can be said for for too many British people.
But I do begrudge them passing off their grammar and syntax as English.
Wht do they have to change the meanings of words?
E.g.
English Tram = US Streetcar or Cable Car (in Los Angeles), English Cable Car = US Tram. Confusing or what!!
English Bulkhead (car) = US Firewall
English Wing (car) = US Fender'
English Momentarily means "briefly" or "For a short time" (a moment)
US Momentarily apparently means "soon", which is not the same at all.
English meeting etiquette "table a motion" means "let's discuss it".
American "table the motion" means Shelve it (i.e. not discuss it)
There's loads more. It really is a foreign language that's close enough to English to be mostly understood but it should really be called American (US), to distingush it from Amercan (Canadian), which is different again.
It is incorrect to call native English "British English". What is spoken in these isles is the language of these isles. The other varieties are dialects.
2007-02-16 05:11:09
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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I think you will find that it is us that have changed the language and not the Americans since their English started from here initially. If you look at Latin Languages( which influenced ours tremendously ) you will notice that flavour, honour, colour,. favour etc are all spelt without the u as they are in America.
Our language has changed so much since we have been invaded by practicly everyone, the Saxons, Vikings, Romans Normans,so there is some Latin, some German , and some Nordic, and our language is still changing with the immigration of so many other cultures.
2007-02-16 05:54:04
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answer #8
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answered by nanunanu 1
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The history of American English is totally fascinating. I recommend reading Bill Bryson's book 'Made in America'.
The British are very snobbish about it, but there is no reason that Americans (and Canadians and Aussies) shouldn't have their own dialects of English and spellings. All different dialects and spellings are used throughout the UK. Particularly in Scotland, so there really isn't any such thing as 'pure' English anyway.
In fact in the past, English spellings, on all continents, were more variable than they are today. Pronunciations were also highly variable and spellings often changed to reflect that. When the spellings 'solidified' into modern usage and were captured in dictionaries different countries captured them different ways. Some English words have a variety of spellings even in within the UK grey and gray for instance or blond and blonde, check and cheque.... the list goes on.
2007-02-16 03:44:39
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answer #9
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answered by SmartBlonde 3
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I think that they are just making the spelling easier or trying too and you have to remember that it was not all that long ago when English was spelt as the writer wanted to write it. It does not bother me much except for a couple of words Cheque which they spell check and that has a totally different meaning and they put cloths for clothes and that does not even a good spelling for the pronunciation of the word.
2007-02-16 03:32:12
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answer #10
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answered by Maid Angela 7
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like evolution itself its different pressures, difffernet cultural influeneces
British English pronunciation and spelling has changed just as much as American (of Austrailian or any other English speaking country for that matter).
There has been a huge influx of immigrants to both countries.. but the US is largely comprised of immigrant influences. these have changed English in a more subvertive manor.
Its alledged that if you want to hear the common English that is the route of both modern day variants then you should go to one of the islands off I think its the Carolinas where an isolated island still speaks a form of Shakespearian English.
2007-02-16 06:03:20
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answer #11
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answered by Mark J 7
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