I think it's french...
2007-02-15 13:45:14 · 4 answers · asked by pacewonworld06 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Well,
I would go with playdonn's answer in the part of " it's better to be
-des- in bothe sentences or to be -les- in both of them as well.Because it means:
(in case of -des-) you can have some of mine ,if i can have some of yours.
(in case of -les- ) you can have mine if I can have yours .
But in case of your sentence it's not fair ..lol :) because it means :
you can have some of mine if I can have yours .
Hope it helps
*I'm studying Linguistics & phonetics of both English & french
Good luck
2007-02-15 21:56:40 · answer #1 · answered by Emmy 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It should be either "vous pouvez avoir des miens si je peux avoir des vôtres" or "vous pouvez avoir les miens si je peux avoir les vôtres". In short, you can have (some of) mine if I can have (some of) yours.
2007-02-15 17:27:40 · answer #2 · answered by paladin 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It means something to the affect of you can have mine if i can see yours... but who said that to you... i think you mean voir(to see) not avoir(to have) also it is miens for mine... like the previous answer it really didn't make sense...
2007-02-15 15:12:32 · answer #3 · answered by michael H 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You can have the mines, if I can have yours.
It makes no sense. Probably it's idiomatic and my French is rusty.
2007-02-15 15:11:20 · answer #4 · answered by Zelda Hunter 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋