Well, actually it's just the development of languages. Such as, people don't speak english now in the same way they used to. After decades and decades, the languages will be influenced by other things until the original language eventually dies out. English, for example, is a very influenced language. It's not that they die, they just change to an unrecognizable point to where the original language no longer exists.
2007-02-15 04:32:50
·
answer #1
·
answered by sum12stupid4u 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Not necessarily. As an example: Imagine an American household in which the parents are European immigrants. The native language (let's presume a dialect) is spoken, along with English. Most likely, the children and subsequent offspring will predominantly speak English. The use of the "native" language will fall away, as the need to use it diminishes.
Also keep in mind that, as the world become increasingly more "global," over the course of time, fewer, major languages will prevail.
2007-02-15 04:36:50
·
answer #2
·
answered by alchemist0750 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
each and every of the "very last audio gadget" were bilingual because maximum of their playmates as little ones spoke yet another language. death languages do no longer "homogenize" because the first answer states. they only provide up being taught to little ones and a sparkling language is taught. Then as no new little ones are getting to draw close the language, the youngest speaker will develop into older and older. check out close by American languages. lots of them have dozens of audio gadget left, yet no little ones are being taught the language, so the youngest audio gadget are of their 40s or 50s. those human beings are all bilingual in English, although the in elementary words time they talk their close by language is with human beings older than they're. BTW, there is no such ingredient as "Ashkenazi Indian". Navajo and Creek were used as code languages against the eastern, and Comanche replaced into used as a code language against the Germans.
2016-11-03 13:00:09
·
answer #3
·
answered by ? 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Some people speak multiple languages when living in a multicutural area.
2007-02-15 04:31:59
·
answer #4
·
answered by Wijssegger 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
No...because they spoke other languages, including the dominant language of the area.
2007-02-15 04:43:59
·
answer #5
·
answered by mzJakes 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
the only people that speak the language usually live in secluded areas where they only speak to their fellow villagers.
2007-02-15 04:27:29
·
answer #6
·
answered by Borinke 1
·
0⤊
0⤋