Jesus HIMSELF, never says one word against homosexuality. The homophobic statements in the New Testament all come from PAUL, not Jesus. Jesus may make reference to homosexuality, however.
The word eunuch is of interest. Today, of course most of us know the word eunuch to mean a castrated male. However, it did not take on it's modern meaning until after the 4th century CE. Prior to that the word eunuch was a broad term that included any male that did not have sexual attraction to women for whatever reason. The word eunuch appears throughout the Bible, but not once is the word associated with a castrated male. Only one time in the OT is a castrated male mentioned, and the word eunuch appears nowhere in the passage.
Jesus himself would be considered a eunuch since, according to Christians, he lacked sexual interest in women.
We also know from surviving Roman texts that those with homosexual characteristics were classified as eunuchs under the law, but also retained full rights unlike men who were castrated or had diseased non functioning male parts.
This is important when we read Matthew 19:11-12: But He said to them, "Not all men can accept this statement, but only those to whom it has been given.
"For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mother's womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to accept this, let him accept it."
Who are the eunuchs born that way from their mother's womb? If they were males who had birth defects, then why would some not be able to accept this statement? If in fact, he is talking about homosexuals, then Jesus was absolutely right, not everyone can accept it.
Horsense make reference to Matthew 19:4-5, but if he had bothered to continued reading the whole passage he would have seen that Jesus makes specific exceptions to a man being joined to his wife, in Matthew 19:11-12.
“The Bible contains six admonishments to homosexuals and 362 admonishments to heterosexuals. That doesn't mean that God doesn't love heterosexuals. It's just that they need more supervision.” Lynn Lavner
2007-02-14 18:11:40
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answer #1
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answered by Wisdom in Faith 4
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All sexual acts come under the word FORNICATORS(Fornication) 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 answers your question. Mankind are all sinners, that why Jesus died for us. Psalms 37: 10 & 11,29 tells us that there will be a time when we will live in peace for ever. Psalms 83:18 tells us what Gods name is(Org King James) Acts 15:14 says God will pick out a people for his name. If you want accurate answers from the Bible, seek out these people, but be prepared to be angry at all the false teachings that you have been told by the empire of false religion(Babylon The Great-Rev 18:1-4)
2007-02-15 02:49:45
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answer #2
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answered by fixerken 7
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I can't find exactly where in the bible that it says strieght out that it's wrong. BUT! Think about it, what is God's plan for marrige? He created Man and Woman. Genisis 2:22,23 And the rib, wich the Lord God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man. And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh; she shall now be called woman, because she was taken out of man.
Why did God create Woman? To give Adam a partner, a ,mate. God's design for marrige is Man and woman. It's clearly stated over and over in the bible, just read it yourself.
Being gay goes completly against God's plan for marriage.
2007-02-15 02:35:11
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Romans Chapter 1. Towards the end of the chapter.
That is the main place but there are several other places it hits on it as well.
Jesus himself says to flee fornication, which is sex outside of marriage. That would fall under the part of it being wrong....Gay or straight for that matter.
2007-02-15 01:50:50
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answer #4
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answered by Miss Momma 4
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To my knowledge, Jesus is not quoted as saying anything specific about homosexuality although he does state that he is a Jew (thereby following Jewish law) and the Jewish law is quite clear on the question. Homosexuality is stated in Jewish law as an abomination against God.
2007-02-15 01:49:55
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answer #5
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answered by Poohcat1 7
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Yes it is in the bible (1Corinthians6:9- Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind.) The word effeminate in a regular dictionary means=Having qualities or characteristics more often associated with women than men.#2 It also means to= make feminine!!!
2007-02-15 02:04:54
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answer #6
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answered by caramel brownie 1
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Tyre and Sidon/Sodom and Gomorrha were seen as the extreme examples of the greatest evil a group of people could do. So Jesus used them to show that there is even a greater evil, and that is when someone sees the works of God and rejects them. To me that means they are very high on the top evil's list. (see Mt 10:15, Mt 11:23, Mt 11:24, Mr 6:11, Lu 10:12)
Furthermore, the Great Flood, along with the judgement of Sodom and Gomorrha was singled out by Him as being like the terrible judgement one can expect when He comes back to judge. (see Lu 17:29) To me that means "whoa! I don't want to do what they did in order to deserve that!!!" Homosexuality was clearly one of the prominent sins of Sodom and Gomorrha. Without one doubt, you do not want to put yourself into their category by committing the same sins that they did.
2007-02-15 02:28:05
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answer #7
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answered by Shawn D 3
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I don't recall anything actually mentioned in the Bible although it's been awhile since I've read any of it.
I'm not against it either nor am I for it.
Different strokes for different folks and mind your own business are two sayings that mean a lot to me.
2007-02-15 01:52:31
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answer #8
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answered by ? 3
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Jesus said that the Bible is true. He taught the Bible. That is in the bible. If he thought that it should be removed, I think that he would have eliminated it. It is mentioned in both the old and new testaments.
2007-02-15 01:50:52
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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No, Jesus didn't mention it, but the Old Testament does, in the Torah (Moses' Law) and Paul and Peter mention it as a grave offence.
2007-02-15 01:50:00
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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