genesis 15 And I will put enmity
between you and the woman,
and between your offspring [a] and hers;
he will crush [b] your head,
and you will strike his heel."
“Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel. He will eat curds and honey at the time He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken” (Isaiah 7:14-16).
2007-02-14 09:37:33 · 15 answers · asked by andrew 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus did not fulfill the requirement to be the Messiah. Jews, like myself, do not believe in an incarnate god who becomes born of a virgin woman and then is subsequently killed accomplishing nothing.
Genesis 15 has nothing to do with a Messiah in Jewish thought. In fact the Zohar attributes this prophecy to be about yeter hara (the evil inclination) and its destruction. Jews do not believe in an evil devil who runs around tempting people to sin. Further Isaiah 7 is speaking in an immediate context- it is not a future prophecy. The prophecy itself was fulfilled in the present context. Also the term "almah," which Christian Bibles render as "virgin" is a mistranslation as the word always means "young woman." This prophecy has nothing to do with the Messiah.
2007-02-14 09:58:04 · answer #1 · answered by Sholom 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
did you read the last line you put?
"For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken"
when did that happen in Jesus life time?
also what about the Isaiah 7:10-13? where it clearly shows that the verse is a prophecy for Ahaz who lived hundreds of years before Jesus.
as for Gen. where on earth is that a reference to the Messiah?
it is talking about the punishment of the snake and eve.
I am sure you still dont see why this is a problem, but this is exactly why Jews dont by Christianity. If you take the Tanach (OT) without the new and you read without any knowledge of Jesus and then read the NT you will not be able to connect the two.
I know you wont respond to me but if Jesus is really the Messiah then why did he not do what what he was supposed to?
I am referring to
Ezekiel Chapter 37 verses 24-28
if you can show me how Jesus accomplished that I will convert tomorrow.
2007-02-14 19:45:50 · answer #2 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think the blinders have to come off, and that will happen soon. All of a sudden it will make sense. Especially since many around the whole world are turning to Jesus Christ. One Messiah prophecy is that He Is Savior of the World, all who believe in Him.
I believe the fulness of the Church has to manifest first.
Many of the Messiah Prophecies fulfilled are recorded in an answer I read earlier. http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20070204120019AA8U30N
Also, it is Genesis 3:15. That is a prophecy of the Messiah. So is Isaiah 7:14-16. But that is the Book of the Prophet Isaiah and not part of the Torrah. The Torrah is the 5 books of Moses. Prophet Isaiah was tried & tested and found to be a True Prophet of God. There are many prophecies of the Messiah in it. Also, Isaiah was found in the dead sea scrolls and is the same today as it was then.
2007-02-14 18:13:58 · answer #3 · answered by t a m i l 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Isaiah is not part of Torah, and the quote is inaccurate. The Christian authors of the gospels quoted the Septuagint, a Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, which used the term "parthenos", which specifically means "virgin". The Hebrew word is "almah", meaning "young woman", and the prophecy applied to the king's wife, hardly a virgin.
The Genesis quote is rather vague. The "offspring" of Eve would literally be everyone, would it not?
The "messiah" of Jewish expectation had to be a literal king. "Messiah" means "anointed". Kings were anointed, not priests or prophets. Jesus was a figurative "king" who lacked any visible temporal authority. From the Jewish point of view, every Hebrew "prophecy" quoted by the gospel writers had to be bent and hammered to fit into the Jesus theory. They simply did not mean what was claimed of them. Christians can call this a spiritual "blindness" but for Jews, the scriptural evidence doesn't actually support the theory.
Christians who read the Quran will say that Muslims have misinterpreted Christian scripture and mischaracterized Jesus. that's how Christian interpretation of Jewish scripture feels to Jews.
2007-02-14 18:00:11 · answer #4 · answered by skepsis 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
I have no idea what genesis 15 has to do with a messiah
and that passage you cite a) isnt in the Torah, b) the word virgin is a bad translation, it really means young woman, c)even if it did, ther eis no way to prove it refers to Jesus, d)that paragraph is taken out of context and really doesn't sound very specific in the first place.
Other than the virgin part, which as i said is a bad translation, it doesnt even sound like it refers to Jesus.
anything else?
2007-02-14 17:43:46 · answer #5 · answered by abcdefghijk 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
None of the passages definitively points to Jesus of Nazareth as the Messiah. Jews were expecting a king to lead Israel out of Roman rule. Jesus was crucified by Romans.
Even as a Catholic I must admit that in literal translation this would seem to negate the divinity of Jesus.
2007-02-14 17:43:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
I'm not positive, because I'm not Jewish, but I think that they believe that the Messiah hasn't came yet. They don't think that Jesus was the Messiah that was prophesied in the Old Testament. So they think that the promised Messiah is yet to come.
2007-02-14 17:40:55 · answer #7 · answered by Tara 2 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Because they simply don't believe Jesus was the Messiah. They see no reason to believe Jesus was the fulfillment of this prophecy.
2007-02-14 17:41:57 · answer #8 · answered by Phoenix, Wise Guru 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
the first section is not messianic in nature. if you want to tie it to john 3:8 then you have to say that jesus failed because he didn't crush satan.
the second is not only a mistranslation (the word "virgin" is a kjv mistake, and an intentional one at that) but refers directly to someone pregnant at the time of king ahaz, matthew 1:22 misquotes it.
jesus didn't do the things judaism teaches about the messiah. so he was nothing. why believe in nothing?
2007-02-14 17:45:52 · answer #9 · answered by rosends 7 · 5⤊ 2⤋
jesus did not fulfill any of the requirements of the messiah.
he did not bring world peace
the Jews did not all gather in jerusalem
he did not rebuild the temple
need I go on?
Also, that Isiah quote is a mistranslation, it's "young woman" not "virgin"
2007-02-14 17:45:40 · answer #10 · answered by Skysong 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋