How much more of the Bible is fraudulent?

Question

The Bible was incorrectly translated from Hebrew to Greek. The word 'young woman' was changed to 'vigin' (as in the prophesy of the virgin birth in the OT):

From the mainstream British newspaper The Telegraph (link below):
"The doctrine of the miraculous conception and birth of a God-man was based on a remarkable mistranslation into Greek - wilful or otherwise - of Isaiah's original, quite specific Hebrew words."

From Translators Journal, a publication for professional translators (link below): "The Old Testament talks about almah 'young woman,' not bethulah 'virgin.' However, the scholars in the 3rd century BC translated the Hebrew almah as parthenos in Greek."

Answer 1

This argument is flawed, you don't understand the context of Hebrew.
"Almah" can have many meanings, lass, damsel, young woman, virgin, unmarried woman.
You must look at the context of the words around to find out which meaning applies. And don't apply modern morals to it either, because back then an "unmarried woman" was THE SAME THING as a VIRGIN.
When the Hebrew scholars translated the Old Testament into Greek (You are talking about the Septuagint here) they chose the Greek word parthenos, which mean virgin, so they would understand the correct context of the word. Duh!

Answer 2

Actually, the connotation of "almah" is that it would be a virgin. "Almah" doesn't just mean "young woman." It means:
a lass (as veiled or private): - damsel, maid, virgin.
It was assumed then that ANY unmarried woman was a virgin. If she wasn't, she could be banished or stoned.
The word "bethulah" is supposed to translate to:
Feminine passive participle of an unused root meaning to separate; a virgin (from her privacy); sometimes (by continuation) a bride; also (figuratively) a city or state: - maid, virgin.
Therefore, no, the translation was not incorrect. The two words mean basically the same thing.

Answer 3

Alamah not young woman but young maiden there is no word for virgin in the Hebrew that could be used in this context. A young maiden that has a child is not considered a young maiden but a harlot.Now if you insist that the correct translation is young woman...Isiah says I will give you a sign...This is the sign as you interpret it that a young woman would have a child? this sign of God that a young woman has a child...did prior to Isiah young women not have children? Lets get a clue!!! In Hebrew you were a young maiden,a married woman or a harlot.

Answer 4

The whole prophesy of a virgin birth in relation to Jesus is irrelevant since the prophesy was not about the coming messiah. The prophesy was a sign to be given to King Azah so that he would know that YHVH was with him. King Azah died over 500 years prior to the birth of Jesus. It makes no sense that such a sign would be fulfilled after the death of the person it was meant for. Besides, the sign is fulfilled in the very next chapter.

Answer 5

well all bibles today are translated from the hebrew but as for your insistance to be honest it would have been presumed a yooung unmarried girl was a virgin I know that does no prove any thing but I accept the bible as it is and God uses it to speak to those who look to him. Mistranslation or not.

Answer 6

Everyone knows virgin means young girl.There is no fraud,so the
Angel Gabriel came to a young girl Mary,told Her She would have
The Baby, Mary said " How can this be/ I have known no man "

Answer 7

Shouldn't you be asking 'How much more of the Bible is factual?' considering the excellent answers above?

Answer 8

Isn't it crazy that one mis-translation can change the world so much. Or did people translate it to get thier point of view across?