About ten days ago I had a knee injury (possible torn ACL, MCL or hyperextention). I do not see the orthopedic surgeon until Thursday, and my doctor has been prescribing me 5mg oxycodone (percocet) 2 tablets evert 4 to 6 hours as needed for pain. I recently ran out of my prescription so I called in a refill. When I got to the pharmacy to pick up my medication, I noticed a label on the bottle that said something like "This is the same exact drug you have been taking but may be different in shape, color or size".
So, I took 2 right away because it had been almost eight hours since my last dose, and after taking it there seemed to be no effect at all on my pain and did not at all make me feel anything like the original oxycodone I had been taking.
Is it possible that my doctor for whatever reason prescribed me a placebo drug because he believes my pain is not legitimate or as severe as I make it out to be? Is this something that is even a remote possibility?
2007-02-13 14:47:29 · 6 answers · asked by Carson 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Medicine
It is unethical and Illegal for a Doctor to give you a Placebo when you have a real reason to take them.
It's also Illegal for you to be able to call in a "refill" for this medication. This is a Control 2 medication which means that you need a new prescription every time you pick it up. The doctor can't even call in for refills.
Unless you miss spoke, I would worry that the pharmacy misunderstood and filled one of your other medications or even gave you someone else's.
Double check the name of the drug and the patient name on the bottle to make sure it's the one you want.
If you did miss speak than it's quite possible that the pharmacy got two different brands of the same medication, but if this were the case than they should have affected you the same.
I'm not sure what's really going on here but I do know there is NO way that the doctor would ever give you a placebo. As a matter of fact, they're impossible to even get unless you are a drug company conducting a research study.
2007-02-13 15:15:48 · answer #1 · answered by kds6107 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
there has to be a name of the medication (probly a generic name) on the bottle. You cant have a prescription filled with out that so the patient knows what they are taking. No placebo pills are given to trick the patient. Trust me, I am a dentist that gets hit up every friday by addicts in search and I wish I could do that. My trick is to prescribe something that does not have a euphoric effect but claims to be adequate for the same level of pain as indicated by the PDR.
2007-02-13 17:34:41 · answer #2 · answered by drbrian247 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not a doctor but the truth is circumcision is a very positive thing. If you properly research it it is apparent that it protects health and who likes the look of a dog penis? However if you get it done there is the bonus of better sex. Anti-circs try to trick people (women or men circumcised at birth) out of circumcising their kids by making out that a flap of skin is an extra penis except better or some such trash.
2016-05-24 08:21:04 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Doubtful, if the first prescription was the real thing the second should be. I would question the pharmacist about the new prescription, let him know that it is not doing anything for the pain.
2007-02-13 14:52:41 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They probably changed the manufacturor from whom they get generic oxycodone. This happens all the time. Also, for many, if you think a pain medication isn't going to work, it won't.
2007-02-14 00:56:24 · answer #5 · answered by Lea 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did the prescription read obecalp? If not then it was most likely a generic.
2007-02-13 15:13:26 · answer #6 · answered by Phillip 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋