Since approximately 2,000 years have passed without "incident", why exactly was he telling people 2,000 years ago that the end was "near"? What end was "near"?
I'd like feedback from Christians on this, only. Since the rest of you "aren't" Christian, your opinions are all irrelevant since my question isn't directed at you.
2007-02-13 11:59:34 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Bible says that to God a day is as a thousand years and a thousand years as a day. What this means is that a thousand days on Earth is like one day in Heaven. So in reality it has only been about 2 days.
2007-02-13 12:05:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
What he meant at the time about the end being near, was the end of the Jewish system of things, I can tell you are a bible reader, so I will refer you to Matthew 23: 38 Where he tells of Jerusalem and it's people being abandoned by God In 70 Common Era, Jerusalem was completely destroyed and most of it's people, the christians had already left. the temple and all it's records were destroyed, so no Jewish family can trace their heritage past the year 70 Common Era. There is an end of this system of things coming - we do not know when it will be but it will come in God's own time, we must keep faithful until then.
2007-02-13 20:13:29 · answer #2 · answered by Nancy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What Jesus described were two events.
One was almost certainly the destruction of Jersusalem and the Temple in 70AD, which was the definitive end of the old temple worship system.
The Christians who were in Jerusalem at the time followed Jesus' advice and high tailed it our of town before Jerusalem was encircled and cut off by the Romans.
No Christians were killed in the subsequent conflagration.
The other event was either the fall of the Roman Empire, or the end of this world age. Perhaps both.
Time will tell.
2007-02-13 21:02:25 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you look carefully through the Gospels you will never find a single time where Jesus says that the end is near. What he says is "The kingdom of Heaven is at hand". "at hand" meant "present". What he was saying was that the kingdom of Heaven was present in His person.
2007-02-13 20:06:29 · answer #4 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The end for those people happened right around 2,000 years ago. When you die it is the end for you.
2007-02-13 20:31:05 · answer #5 · answered by Midge 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Isn't it possible that he meant that the end is near for the people he was talking to and, by extension, to each of us?
2007-02-13 20:08:07 · answer #6 · answered by tychobrahe 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because each of us has our own "end". I don't think he meant the end of the world - just the end of our lives. Heck, we only have, what 100 years max?
2007-02-13 20:03:46 · answer #7 · answered by ISING4U2_00 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because the Bible was written for today as well as for for then, and it will still be applicatable for the future!! I hope this will clear up some questions.
2007-02-13 20:06:05 · answer #8 · answered by michael m 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, near can mean anything. Maybe a dafjwedsgjkhekillion years is near according to God. Afterall, time doesn't exactly apply to Him.
2007-02-13 20:02:54 · answer #9 · answered by Jay 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
WHEN YOU START OUT WITH OVER 25,OOO YEARS AND YOU ARE DOWN TO 2,000 YEARS, YOUR ARE GETTING NEAR!!!
2007-02-13 20:29:28 · answer #10 · answered by swindled 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋