Realize that in the culture when those words were written (the first century Roman Empire) that capitalism, free enterprise, private ownership, etc. did not exist. There were a handful of aristocrat es that basically owned and ruled everything. 99% of the population of the world at the time were slaves.
Businesses did not have employees, they purchased slaves to work at the business. Even business men did not own their businesses (farmers, shops ,etc). They were slaves of the king (emperor,etc) and only allowed to have business at his whim.
This has been condition of the world from as far back as recorded history goes up until the 1700s. It has only been the last two centuries of history that slavery has begun to disappear.
While writing to a group of people for whom slavery was an everyday fact of life (and would be for the next 1700 years), Paul told those who were in the condition to be faithful, obedient servants to their masters. Just as today he would have told you to be a reliable, obedient employee to your boss.
The real question, however, is does the Bible condone slavery? No where in the New Testament will you find a scripture condoning the owning of slaves. It does tell you how to react if you find yourself in that situation as a slave. But nowhere does it condone you being the owner of a slave. Rather in the book of Philemon you have the story of a run away slave you stold from his master. Paul meets the slaves and converts him. He then sends him back to his master to make right on the theft he had committed. Paul ask Philemon to forgive the slave's theft and to treat him as a brother in Christ. While the letter does not give the results of the slave's return, history tells us that Philemon forgave the debt and leaglly freed the slave. There is the Christian stand on slavery.
Even in the Old Testament, slavery was very different then what was practiced in the rest of the world. In every other country, all men were slaves for life to the king, and he did what he pleased with them. The Old Testament law limited slavery to a period of seven years. In exchange for all your debrts being paid off, and any land your had lost through debt returned to you, a person could sell themself (nobody was going to Africa and kidnapping them to be stold into slavery) for seven years. During that time, the "owner" was required to provide everything the needed. If there was only enough food for one, the slave got it. If there was only one bed, the slave got. At the end of the seven years, the slave went free. Very different from what we think of as slavery
If the slave was a female, the owner was forbidden from having sex with her, unless he freed her, married her, and made her the head of his household. If he injured a slave, he had to pay compenstation for the injury. If he killed a slave, he faced murder charges. Again, very different from slavery as practiced by the entire rest of the world.
While the King James Bible uses the word "slave", a more accurate translation of the word should be "bond-servant". You are someone committed to serve (work for) a person for the length of your contract (or bond). The idea that the master "owned" that personas if he was property is foreign to Bible law.
2007-02-13 04:07:25
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answer #1
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answered by dewcoons 7
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No-the point is; whatever you do, you should do well. If you are a slave then you should be a good slave-if you are are master, you should be a good master. It never said that a slave can't try to escape-just to do a good job while he's there. It's all about doing unto others. The Bible is an excellent guide on how to gain and live with inner peace. But, it can be easily taken out of context and be grossly misused.
2007-02-13 04:08:01
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answer #2
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answered by lkrhtr70 4
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I'm not religious, but I see nothing wrong with the bible or anything else giving good advice.
If I knew a murderer who was sent to prison, and I advised him to not make trouble in prison, it wouldn't mean that I condoned murder.
The same goes for the writers of the bible, Advising slaves to not make trouble for themselves does not mean the writer condoned the keeping of slaves.
2007-02-13 04:21:45
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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For hundreds of years, slave owners and anyone who has a deviant cause used the Bible to justify it. While it is true that there were instances of slavery during Biblical times (as dictated by the victors of war and the nations they conquered), in the Bible it is unjust to own another human being. Furthermore, it is unjust to enslave them.
2007-02-13 04:03:45
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answer #4
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answered by Snoop 5
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In the bible it seems to mean more like a servant...it wasn't based on race, but oweing someone money or something...don't even try to condone slavery in the US...
2007-02-13 04:03:25
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answer #5
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answered by gemneye70 4
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Because slavery was ok back then. You can't apply today's rules, ethics, and laws to thousands of years ago. And why the hell is this in the boxing category???
2007-02-13 04:01:55
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Remember it was written by men not by God.
2007-02-13 04:06:23
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answer #7
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answered by Sassy 3
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