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18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.
Mark 10:18

- so after knowing who is God, here is Jesus explain even more:
Deuteronomy 6:4
Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord. (notice our God)

1st commandment: you shall not take other gods before Me

but even that you still insist of trinity, you r following the teaching of John not Jesus. no one has any right to add his words into the Bible, this is the Bible of God not a note-book. the Bible should be shut down after jesus was gone.

2007-02-13 00:10:51 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

20 answers

Philippians 2:5-7
"Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
Who being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant and being made in human likeness...."
Even though He is God, He is the perfect example of humility.

The reason He separates himself in your first passage is so that people would worship His Father and therefore would know the one who sent Him.

2007-02-13 00:23:20 · answer #1 · answered by southfloridamullets 4 · 0 0

In is explained in Phillippians 2:5-11. It states that Jesus was equal with God, but laid that position aside for a time to become a servant. He was then made in human form and was obedient to God the Father - even to the point of death - during that period. Because of that, he has been returned to his position as God, so that every knee is to power to him, and every tongue proclaim his lordship.

While he was in human form (which is when the statement you quoted was made), he had for a time set aside his position, and become a servant. So, at that time, the statement was correct.

Since you are also quoting Deuteronomy 6:4, may I suggest that you take a few minutes to look at how it is worded in the original Hebrew language. The word "God" in that scripture is the Hebrew word "Elohim". "El" is the Hebrew word for "god". Elohim is the plural form of the word El, meaning "gods".

Hear, O Israel: the Lord our "Gods" is one Lord.

You will find the word "Elohim" used regularly throughout the Old Testament. They use the plural word "Gods" with a singular verb. Because even from Genesis 1:1, where it combination first appears, the authors of scripture knew that God has a triune nature within a single being. Plural noun with singular verb.

2007-02-13 08:25:12 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

The problem is, that you don't comprehend of what you read. He rebuked just being called a good man, because He was more than just a good man. He claimed He was and is God in the flesh. He rebuked the man for considering Him less. If you study the translation more closely, you will understand this if you want to actually understand this. Or, are you just trying to deny that Jesus is the Christ and looking for an argument. Are you one of the muslims here trying to make your false religion more valid? The history of Muhammed is what it is, whether you deny Jesus or not.

2007-02-13 08:19:51 · answer #3 · answered by celticwarrior7758 4 · 3 0

There are three persons in one God, God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. This is called the Holy Trinity. Picture a three leaf clover and you will get the idea!

2007-02-13 08:18:42 · answer #4 · answered by Gerry 7 · 1 0

Many Christians stick to the claim that Christ is God to prove that He does not die and He is higher than other Prophets of God. This belief in the exclusive posseesion of Truth confronts with lots of unanswerable questions. How the One True God is three Persons; why He comes down to earth only once in His existence from eternity to eternity; if Christianity is the only religion of God, why man can divide it into several denominations...

2007-02-13 08:33:37 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

um. Jesus isnt gone. He's coming down again ANYTIME soon.
and it isnt about adding words in the bible.its just a matter of how ppl interpret what they read.

i belong to this QUITE unconservative church. we dont emphasise much on the Holy Trinity.butbut.
we all very well know. that the Holy Trinity is made of Father, Jesus and Holy Spirit.

the Father, SPEAKS, He's teh one who decrees eg He spoke to Moses to deliver Egypt's slaves
Jesus Christ thes Son EXECUTES God's decrees.
the Holy Spirit which is very hard to relate to, EMPOWERS God's powers . He's the one that gives us gifts

so in all, Father , Jesus and Holy Spirit IS God!
hard to comprehend.
just take it that 1+1+1=1

2007-02-13 08:19:42 · answer #6 · answered by pbtham 2 · 3 0

Jesus did not separate himself from God. God manifested Himself in the form of man (Jesus) in order to relate to man at his level and experience mans afflictions first hand. We have a saying that before you judge a person, first try walking in their shoes . If you have ever put this into practice you will begin to understand the love of God. That He was willing to leave a perfect existence to dwell among men just to show us that He does not demand the impossible. He lived as an outcast among His loved ones and died a horrible physical death in the hands of His beloved and still loved enough to leave us a companion -God himself as the Holy Spirit. With this knowledge, how can we still choose to doubt Gods love for us?

2007-02-13 08:35:20 · answer #7 · answered by kahahius 3 · 0 1

The apostolic faith, passed down by the very people who recorded these words of Jesus, professed a belief in the oneness of Christ with the Father and Spirit. It would be ironic if what you're saying is true, for the biblical writers would have been blatantly contradicting their other teachings preserved in the apostolic tradition of the church.

2007-02-13 08:17:17 · answer #8 · answered by existdissolve 1 · 0 1

John 7:28-29
John 8:58
John 10:29-30
John 14:6-7
John 14:9-11
Isaiah 9:1-7

2007-02-13 08:24:02 · answer #9 · answered by tracy211968 6 · 0 1

The word "one" can mean a number of different things. At John 10:30, Jesus said: "I and the Father are one." Did that mean he and his Father were the same person? Was Jesus implying he was God? Jesus himself showed what he meant by his being "one" with the Father. At John 17:21, 22, he prayed to God that his disciples "may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, . . . that they may be one just as we are one." Was Jesus praying that all his disciples would become a single entity? No, obviously Jesus was praying that they would be united in thought and purpose, as he and God were.—See also 1 Corinthians 1:10.

At 1 Corinthians 3:6, 8, Paul says: "I planted, Apollos watered . . . He that plants and he that waters are one." Paul did not mean that he and Apollos were two persons in one; he meant that they were unified in purpose. The Greek word that Paul used here for "one" (hen) is neuter, literally "one (thing)," indicating oneness in cooperation. It is the same word that Jesus used at John 10:30 to describe his relationship with his Father. It is also the same word that Jesus used at John 17:21, 22. So when he used the word "one" (hen) in these cases, he was talking about unity of thought and purpose.

Right in the context of the verses after John 10:30, Jesus forcefully argued that his words were not a claim to be God. He asked the Jews who wrongly drew that conclusion and wanted to stone him: "Why do you charge me with blasphemy because I, consecrated and sent into the world by the Father, said, 'I am God's son'?" (John 10:31-36, NE) No, Jesus claimed that he was, not God the Son, but the Son of God.

So this is what it means when Jesus said he and his Father were one. They were in agreement.

2007-02-13 08:20:55 · answer #10 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 0 1

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