it has been well-established that 'young woman' was mistranslated as 'virgin'
http://accurapid.com/journal/18review.htm
2007-02-12 20:01:55 · 12 answers · asked by Brendan G 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
almah means 'young woman,' not bethulah, which means 'virgin.'
2007-02-12 20:10:22 · update #1
the Web site is one for professional translators, btw
2007-02-12 20:12:05 · update #2
Serena: the Web site is for professional translators. I think they know the languages involved better than you do. Besides, the mistranslation is common knowledge:
http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&q=mistranslation+virgin+birth+hebrew+greek&btnG=Google+Search
2007-02-12 20:25:12 · update #3
When the jews translated their scriptures into greek about 275 years before Christ was born(in a version they called 'the septuigint') they used the greek noun 'parthenos' to translate the Hebrew word 'almah'. 'Parthenos' means virgin and only virgin. The jews understood their language. They would never have used this word if they were just talking about a young woman. If you read Isaiah chapter 7, the 'almah' having a baby was to be a special sign to the jews. What kind of a sign would a young woman having a baby be. That happens everyday.
http://www.johnankerberg.org/Articles/editors-choice/EC1205W2.htm
2007-02-12 20:34:30 · answer #1 · answered by upsman 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Actually, I believe it could be rendered as both. The phrase, of someone being the seed of a woman (see Genesis Chapter 3) Is very unusual. Later, Jesus’ virgin birth would give meaning to this verse and show that indeed, it was a prophecy of that far future event. Also, a “young unmarried woman” conceiving would hardly be a sign of anything holly, events like that occur quite frequently in this world. --------------- Added.(Jeremiah 31:22) "How long wilt thou go about, O thou backsliding daughter? for the LORD hath created a new thing in the earth, A woman shall compass a man." "This “new thing” can be nothing less than the coming miraculous conception and virgin birth of the promised Savior. The word for “compass” means “enclose,” and no other interpretation of this promise would involve a “new thing.” Note the reference also to a “virgin of Israel” in the preceding verse. The following verses lead to the great promise of the “new covenant” in Jeremiah 31:31 and following HMM."
2016-05-24 04:36:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Possible mistranslation, yes. But either way, Mary was a 'young woman' and a 'virgin.' I'm sure there are tons of little things people can pick at, but how much does it really matter? Everything else seems to be in order: line of David, born in Bethlehem, prophet and savior...
2007-02-12 22:11:32 · answer #3 · answered by Tiffany 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There's more to it, even, than that.
"Virgin birth" was a very common literary (or oral, since most of this was oral tradition) device used to indicate that the child so born was destined to be special. It was even pretty common for a hero of myth to be born of a virgin to a God.
Kind of like when we say that a woman is a "Stepford Wife" we're not actually saying that she is an android. We are using a shorthand in order to describe a woman in speecific terms...
There are LOTS and LOTS and LOTS of instances of virgin births in the mythologies of different peoples through the ages.
http://englishatheist.org/indexd.shtml
2007-02-14 07:44:31 · answer #4 · answered by Praise Singer 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually,that article isn't correct.A complete understanding of the language,with all it's nuances,will show that.
Anyway,Mary declared to the angel that she had never known a man,which means that she was a virgin.
Abby-I disagree with you.There is no reason to believe that she was raped by a Roman soldier.
2007-02-12 20:20:11 · answer #5 · answered by Serena 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Oh right, did you "learn" this while you were being "forced" to read the Bible?
Brendan, I have a Greek and Hebrew study Bible, that article is lying, the word originally used in both languages translates to virgin.
2007-02-12 20:07:40 · answer #6 · answered by Last Ent Wife (RCIA) 7 · 3⤊ 4⤋
The website you speak of is not the only to say just that, even most theologians agree that yes Jesus existed but that Mary was raped by a Roman soldier.
2007-02-12 20:12:00 · answer #7 · answered by A-chan 4 · 1⤊ 4⤋
Yep.....New Testament, Old Testament get it straight people.
2007-02-12 20:06:36 · answer #8 · answered by nicewknd 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes, it's a well known fact.
Biology also demonstrate that parthenogenesis does not occur in mammals and can only produce females.
However the Bible being a fairy tale, anything can be invented by it's writers.
2007-02-12 20:07:49 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 6⤋
No it's not.But hey! it's a free world ,don't loose sleep over it.
2007-02-12 20:06:59 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋