i know that when there are two verbs in a row in a sentence, the second one has to remain in the infinitive form. but say the word "este" is seperating them, would the second one still be in the infinitive form or would it be conjugated?
2007-02-12 11:25:13 · 7 answers · asked by Tom G 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
There is no such thing. The word este meaning "this", would not be followed by a verb. That wouldn't make since. That would be like saying "this to dance" or "this to eat".
Whenever you use 2 verbs in a sentence, you always leave the second in the infinitive. Unless your talking about 2 different nouns doing 2 different things like:
"I want the thing that he has."
"Yo quiero la cosa la que tiene."
(2 nouns, I and he, 2 verbs, want and have)
There is never an opportunity for este to seperate verbs in the way your refering to.
Think about it........it doesn't make sense to say:
I want "this" to dance.
On the other hand, if your in conversation already and let's say your telling the person:
"I want this to dance." (as your pointing to a dress)
You would say: "Yo quiero éste para bailar."
If your going to use este, you must use "para" before the infinitive. As always though, you still never conjugate the infintive.
(note that I also accented the é in éste. (this makes it more formal when refering to something specific.)
examples:
Yo quiero ésa( that music) para cantar.
I want that music to sing.
Tu quieres ésta( la computadora) para estudiar.
You want this computer to study.
2007-02-12 14:04:58 · answer #1 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You need to give more info, an example. BTW, remember to qualify your statement about 2 verbs "in a row." They have to be connected semantically, e.g., " I want to go/ to sing; I have to work/ study." That's why the second has to be infinitive. In Spanish, the structure is like the English. "Quiero ir/ cantar. Tengo que ir/ estudiar." Here you could also say it's because the "que" is in between,them but that's not really why the second is in the infinitive. It's really the semantic link. The two are connected to express one basic idea. Just like English - at least in the above situation. Buena suerte.
2007-02-12 11:42:14 · answer #2 · answered by jaded 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
In Spanish verbs are not usually separated by the word "este"... so you really should give an example, so we can understand what you really want to know and help you.
2007-02-12 11:56:46 · answer #3 · answered by bbjaga 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As much as I try I can not think of any possibility where you have two Spanish verbs separated by "este".
Give us an example.
2007-02-12 12:27:28 · answer #4 · answered by Martha P 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I would need to see an example.
2007-02-12 11:34:53 · answer #5 · answered by TrippingJudy 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
i dont understand you but im a mexican girl so e mail me if you want help ok
2007-02-12 11:51:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
an example would be nice
2007-02-12 11:42:37 · answer #7 · answered by bluehornedmoon 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋