Hi, I'm from the US and I'm trying to understand the logic of your language. I know very, very little but can't grasp some things and I was hoping for some help. The tutorial I'm using may be inaccurate, but they say this phrase, "Unde sunt?",
which as they say translates to "Where am I?". How is this possible? This sentence contains no subject than the conjugation of "to be" is the same as the conjugation for the "they" subject. So what makes this sentence "Where am I?" not "Where are they?"
Can someone explain how a sentence can be formed without an explicit subject?
2007-02-12
07:23:51
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3 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Languages
That's all well and good, I understand that. The question is, however... how do you deceifer who the subject is? In the case of "you" or "we" it's easy because of the verb conjugation. However "I" and "they" are conjugated the same. So did someone decide it doesn't matter who you're talking about?
2007-02-12
12:30:09 ·
update #1