Exodus 21:20-21 – God says that it is OK to own slaves, and it is also OK to beat them.
- Colossians 3:22-24 – Slaves need to obey their masters.
- Ephesians 6:5 – Slaves need to obey their masters just as they would obey Christ.
- 1 Peter 2:18 – Slaves need to obey their masters, even if their masters are harsh .
And so on…
And why do all intelligent people abhor slavery and make it completely illegal? You have to come up with some kind of weird rationalization to explain it.
2007-02-12 06:04:23 · 14 answers · asked by darkpony6262 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
This is a fine example of what hypocrites christians are. They find passages that condemn homosexuals but yet they say the ones about slavery are outdated.
2007-02-12 06:08:32 · answer #1 · answered by Militant Agnostic 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
I don't know the quotes exactly but I do know that in Coloosians the passage about slaves obeying their masters is followed immediately (or preceded) by a verse about masters treating slaves as God would have them treated. There are a lot of instances such as these in the Bible, but you left out the companion verses. The point is, no matter who you are, or your lot in life, it doesn't matter...Love, Hope, and Faith matter.....
2007-02-12 06:16:29 · answer #2 · answered by chavito 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Why is slavery permitted in the Bible?
Slavery was permitted in the Bible because of sin in the world. It existed before the Jews were formed as a nation and it existed after Israel was conquered. God allows many things to happen in the world such as storms, famine, murder, etc. Slavery, like divorce, is not preferred by God. Instead, it is allowed. Where many nations treated their slaves very badly, the Bible gave many rights and privileges to slaves. So, even though it isn't the best way to deal with people, because God has allowed man freedom, slavery then exists. God instructed the Israelites to treat them properly.
The Bible acknowledged the slave’s status as the property of the master (Ex. 21:23; Lev. 25:46),
The Bible restricted the master’s power over the slave. Ex. 21:20).
The slave was a member of the master’s household (Lev. 22:11)
The slave was required to rest on the Sabbath (Exodus 20:10; Deut. 5:14)
The slave was required and to participate in religious observances (Gen. 17:13; Exodus 12:44; Lev. 22:11).
The Bible prohibited extradition of slaves and granted them asylum (Deut. 23:16-17).
The servitude of a Hebrew debt-slave was limited to six years (Ex. 21:2; Deut. 15:12).
When a slave was freed, he was to receive gifts that enabled him to survive economically (Deut. 15:14)
2007-02-12 06:07:58 · answer #3 · answered by williamzo 5 · 0⤊ 4⤋
Christians and Jews reading this should realize the compliment being paid here.
Since slavery in the Bible was more like contract labor ("slaves" were ordered released after a period and sent away with severence pay), God and those named in the Bible must have been superior to all the nations around who treated slaves like slaves.
(Oh, I'm sorry, did you miss a few verses in your study?)
2007-02-12 06:12:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Excellent point!!!
I believe the answer is that the bible was written by men in power who liked owning slaves and women. They created these stories and these rules to re-enforce the good deal that they had going.
2007-02-12 06:09:16 · answer #5 · answered by Alan 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Look through the bible, just at the things that Jesus said for a clearer picture of what he was about.
As for me, I feel the bible was interpreted by men in power who wanted to maintain their power. The original may have an entirely different meaning.
For example, if you look at the verse, "Wives submit to your husbands" it is translated incorrectly. The actual translation is "Wives support your husbands." Wholly different meaning.
2007-02-12 06:10:55 · answer #6 · answered by Shrieking Panda 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The same reason women are often looked down upon.. It was written by men in a time where these things were acceptable.
2007-02-12 06:10:19 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
The bible was written by man.
Very likely- men who owned slaves.
2007-02-12 06:07:38 · answer #8 · answered by Morey000 7 · 4⤊ 1⤋
People would become slave by being saved or committing crimes and they had rights that were established in the bible.
I hope this helped you glean some data in this matter and you are pigeon holing look at the whole work not a subset of data that matches your perception.
2007-02-12 06:08:14 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
Now you got me thinking. Great question; but I have no answer; need a week to research this.
2007-02-12 10:22:48 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋