According to the Gospels, Joseph of Arimathea gave his tomb for the burial of Jesus. According to mythology he was one of the richest men in all Judea.
One problem...No credible evidence of a city/town/place called Arimathea ever existing has been found, even by christian scholars.
So who was he really? Some christian scholars claim Arimathea is an anagram for the town Ramathaim-Zophim in Ephraim. But if the title is really an anagram, then (h)a-rama-theo is certainly closer and much more credible. (h)a-Rama-Theo or "His Divine Highness" points to Joseph being of Royal blood.
The Herod's were not of the line of David, but Jesus was supposedly through his father Joseph, which would make his father the "divine highness" in exile. Who then really was Joseph? and why doesn't the gospels make this clear with a real placename, or clear title?
2007-02-11 22:06:39 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Eusebius apparently agrees with your 3rd paragraph in identifying Arimathea with Ramathaim. Erdmans Bible Dictionary calls Arimathea "a city of the Jews" Why the Gospels have shed more light on this I don't know.
I Cr 13;8a
But we are going to find out for sure when we get to Heaven. Any day now.
2007-02-11 22:16:42 · answer #1 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Just because something hasn't been found now doesn't mean that it didn't exist to begin with.,or that it won't be found in the future.Archaeology is a constantly changing field.
2007-02-11 22:16:33 · answer #2 · answered by Serena 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Read the book.
2007-02-11 22:14:44 · answer #3 · answered by Orion Quest 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋