When Christians make any comments against homosexuality, they are quoting Leviticus 18:22, which is out of the OT. So since it is not longer valid, why do you use it? Do Christians understand the term hypocrisy? You are quoting a source that you say is no longer valid due to Christ's coming.
2007-02-11 08:36:01 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Adam: if that is the case, then when you answer please provide it, otherwise your answer does not hold any weight.
2007-02-11 08:43:07 · update #1
To all Christians, like most atheists and agnostic people I have read the bible. Just FYI catholic school from elementary to high school, including a two year stint in England (Anglican) where bible reading was part of the curriculum at the school I went to, including daily mass. So been there have the badge.
2007-02-11 08:45:59 · update #2
Mamma mia: Can Christians quit contradicting themselves? From the questions that I have asked and the answers that Christians have put down, the old testament law (except the 10 commandments) are no longer valid. Hence, when told that, it means.........wait for it........that the old testament laws are NO LONGER VALID. Not sure what that means for Christians, but for regular normal people who can think for themselves, that means that it is no longer applicable.
2007-02-11 08:49:35 · update #3
TiM: So when someone is hypocritical (hence a hypocrite), do you not state that? I do not find the true offensive, so why do you?
2007-02-11 08:51:07 · update #4
They pick and choose what they want to follow.
They don't follow any of the old laws, but are never hesitant to throw Isaiah around like a beacon of misinterpreted light...
2007-02-11 10:43:58 · answer #1 · answered by LadySuri 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is not a matter of stating the law and not following that law.
Some of the laws are still valid for Jews.
The laws were never intended for Gentiles.
That does not mean that God's wisdom in the Old Testament is no longer valid.
It does not mean that what man can learn about God from the Old Testament is no longer valid.
God made it VERY clear what He thinks about homosexuality in the Old Testament. That was not a law. The Old Testament is as valid today as it was when it was written.
2007-02-11 08:46:19 · answer #2 · answered by Chef Bob 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Simple, the prohibition on homosexuality is a carry-over from the old Law. 1 Cor. 6:9 says that "men who lie with men" would not inherit the kingdom. The same thing applies to blood. Under the old Law, blood was used for sacrificial purposes only. Before meat could be consumed, it had to be drained of its blood. At Acts 15:20, it was made clear that the prohibition on blood was still in effect.
2007-02-11 08:44:33 · answer #3 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
People keep asking this exact same question over and over.
The apostles seemed to make it clear that the only part of the Law of Moses that still applied to Christians, specifically gentile Christians, under the New Testament were those laws which were purely moral in nature, NOT those which only served to set apart Israel as a nation (Acts 15).
This of course, raises that question of how do you tell which command is which?
The short answer would be that the apostles said over and over in their various letters, that God was still concerned about the "sexual morality" of Christians under the New Testament. Jesus defined sexual morality as being sex between a man and a woman who were married, since Moses indicated that this was God's original intent for sex (Matthew 19). Jesus also said that anyone who could NOT abide by God's commands for sex should remain celibate (literally, a "eunuch"). Paul and Peter echo this command in several of their letters.
2007-02-11 08:50:18 · answer #4 · answered by Randy G 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Too many like to criticize and condemn. You are right, the old testament law is no longer valid. It is God's will than no one should perish, but we all seek after things that go against Him and His will for our lives. If you accept that God sent Jesus to die for our sins then, gay or not, you are one of His children. That is what the Bible says, not me! How many do you hear yelling at others who they find unlike them, referrinig to Christians, about the greatest gift being love? I am a Christian and I have to say I hear way more condemnation being spread than I do love. God said to " Love one another as I have loved you." He didn't mean for us to judge, just discern and love. Peace, I'll see you on the other side!
2007-02-11 08:53:10 · answer #5 · answered by froggsfriend 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The apostle Paul wrote considerably on the OT regulation being outmoded, yet he believed that homosexuality became nevertheless a sin. As an apostle, he had the Holy Spirit in him, so what the apostles wrote is usual as regulation. Jesus did no longer say something alongside the strains of that homosexuality is high quality, yet He did say approximately nutrition regulations and such. Who is usual with of? the daddy, the Son, and the Holy Spirit and whoever they tell understand. God bless.
2016-10-01 23:37:30 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The law has been fufilled by Jesus meaning that some human (namely Jesus) has come and passed the purity requirement given by God. Jesus, the second and perfect Adam, is the "spotless/pure/acceptable" lamb who took away the sin of the world. This does not in any way negate the value of the law as a teacher and communicator...the law is a teacher for us all showing us what is good and what is evil. The law is a teacher showing us our sin which in turn leads us to repentance and reconcilliation with God. That ministry of the law will never change or diminish...that ministry is eternal.
2007-02-11 08:54:29 · answer #7 · answered by Benjamin L 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The New Testament is fufillment of the Old.
Here is verses in the New Testament that is against homosexuality
Romans 1:26-27
Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another, Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.
1 Timothy 1:9-10; I Corinthians 6:9 other places in the New Testament that preaches against homosexuality
2007-02-11 08:48:41 · answer #8 · answered by ۞ JønaŦhan ۞ 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because some (not all) Christians like to personally select which parts they follow and which they do not.
Example: A rich, obese woman preaching in a church about the evils of homosexuality.
"women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says." Corinthians 14:34
Gluttony and Poverty are self-explanatory
2007-02-11 08:49:09 · answer #9 · answered by Ashley 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
1 Corinthians 6:9,10
Don't you know that those who do wrong will have no share in the Kingdom of God? Don't fool yourselves. Those who indulge in sexual sin, who are idol worshipers, adulterers, male prostitutes, homosexuals, thieves, greedy people, drunkards, abusers, and swindlers-none of these will have a share in the Kingdom of God. NLT
Rev. 22:15
Outside the city (of God)are the dogs-the sorcerers, the sexually immoral, the murderers, the idol worshipers, and all who love to live a lie. NLT
2007-02-11 08:48:49 · answer #10 · answered by question man 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋