2007-02-11 01:46:05 · 21 answers · asked by Laughing Out Loud 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
why indeed
2007-02-11 02:48:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Its a weird medieval male concept - women are the original sinners somehow this means sex is dirty and evil and so Mary being the mother of Jesus had to be sin free and so had to be a perpetual virgin - it was a 'gift' from God - as a mature woman, my thoughts are - some gift glad it wasn't me.
EDIT
I'm not by the way applying this to the virgin birth - that is a religious concept that in some ways makes sense (at least to me). It is afterwards that i find confusing and believe was to do with what i have written above. The woman was married and Gods law certainly has sex in there amongst the other clauses (in fact there is a verse somewhere that means Mary wouldn't have been able to refuse her husband as a Jewish woman)
I'm not sure how far catholics still believe in the perpetual virgin Mary - I think my sister (who is catholic) views it as more of a religious concept than a true and literal fact.
2007-02-11 10:14:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Mary was a virgin when she became pregnant with Jesus. She was also affianced at the time to Joseph, whom she married. After the birth of Jesus, she bore Joseph children. All of those children were conceived after Jesus was born.
I know that Catholics disagree about the other children, but I believe they existed because they are mentioned in the Bible, which means that those who knew Jesus personally said that they were aware of his family.
"Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us?" Mark 6:3
2007-02-11 13:41:30 · answer #3 · answered by cmw 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I cannot believe the terrible answers you are getting here.
James is a younger brother of Jesus, as was Joses, Simon, and Judas (not Iscariot). (Mt 13:55). He even had sisters (Mk 6:3).
Clearly Mary was not a virgin after the birth of Jesus. Before, yes.
2007-02-11 10:17:44 · answer #4 · answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Mary was only a virgin in Jesus birth. In the bible it shows us why He chose a virgin.The Bible is very specific in saying that Mary, the mother of Jesus, did have other children after Jesus was born. The Bible says that Jesus was her
FIRSTBORN and Joseph did not know her intimately UNTIL she gave birth to Jesus. The Bible does not say that she remained a virgin, nor does the Bible say that Jesus was her only child. This teaching that suggests that Mary remained a virgin is antibiblical. Mary did not remain a virgin. This is for certain.
For a woman to remain a virgin while being married to her husband would be considered a sin by God's standards. God created marriage. The two become one flesh and the bed is undefiled in marriage. Mary and Joseph were married in every sense of the word. Joseph took Mary to be his wife, not a roommate. Had she remained a virgin her entire married life, this would have been very dysfunctional. It would have displeased her husband and the Lord.
Luke 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
Notice that the Biblical text does not say, "Hail Mary full of grace..." This is a misinterpretation of the Greek text. The Greek word for "highly favoured" means "to grace, that is, indue with special honor: - make accepted, be highly favoured." God gave this special honor to Mary to bear the Messiah. To Grace...not "full of grace."
Mary was JUST A HUMAN, just as you and I.
2007-02-11 10:15:05 · answer #5 · answered by K 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
She was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus, but then her other sons were Joseph's sons rather than God's sons (which is the reason why you never got any of them performing amazing miracles). So if they were Joseph's sons, she had to sleep with Joseph before conceiving, but with God, that doesn't necessarily apply.
2007-02-12 07:44:56 · answer #6 · answered by Amy R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I answer this in the faint hope that you really do want to know this and are not just baiting people, before the Protestant reformation all Christians believed in the perpetual virginity of Mary,that God to Whom nothing is impossible brought this about by His power and love, firstly Mary could not have sin in her soul as Christ could not have been born of Her womb in the first place,secondly She knew whom Jesus was from the outset and dedicated her whole life to her Lord and Son to the exclusion of other children.
2007-02-11 10:03:14 · answer #7 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Of course she would no longer be a virgin after having the first son - supposedly Jesus. Well, I'm not saying I agree with the "virgin birth" story.
2007-02-11 09:54:28 · answer #8 · answered by Prof. Virgo 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Mary was a virgin at Jesus birth but did not remain that way, your right Jesus had other brothers and sisters!
2007-02-11 09:57:01 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
Because they were probably not her children. Joseph was much older than Mary and he was probably married before and lost his wife. Joseph had children by his first wife and those became brothers and sisters to Jesus. The Bible is not the only source of the life of Jesus. In other texts James was Jesus's older brother....
2007-02-11 09:54:51 · answer #10 · answered by Bethie 2 · 2⤊ 3⤋
iMary was conceived without original sin so that she could carry the Saviour in her womb, Jesus was conceived through the power of the Holy Spirit and not an earthly father. James would not have been a blood brother of Jesus.
2007-02-11 11:47:30 · answer #11 · answered by Plato 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋