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1 Tim 2
11A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent. 13For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. 15But women will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.

2007-02-10 12:26:20 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

The childbearing referred to was because Christ was born through a woman into the world. You can't seriously think that just giving birth in and of itself "saves" anybody do you? What about women who can't have children? Get real - it is a reference to Christ.

2007-02-10 12:35:26 · answer #1 · answered by wd 5 · 0 1

That is a weird verse theologically speaking. But I believe it was intended to mean that the accepted order of nature is women take husbands and have children and they are best served by sticking to the set order God created for the family as best as they can. Not literal spiritual salvation but more of a living in the truth/going where you fit best kinda thing. We see a similiar peculiar verse elsewhere.

Nevertheless, each one should retain the place in life that the Lord assigned to him and to which God has called him. This is the rule I lay down in all the churches. -1 Corinthians 7:17

2007-02-10 12:43:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

This is an example of not having a solid foundation in biblical hermeneutics. The passage about childbirth is actually pointing to the birth of Christ, that was born of a woman, and who shall "break the serpent's head" (See Ge 3;15).

Best to not take a few verses and form an entire theology around them. One must consider the entire biblical writings, the context, author, and related passages, themes, etc., to construct a proper interpretation.

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2007-02-10 12:33:49 · answer #3 · answered by Ask Mr. Religion 6 · 1 0

Verse 15 is shrouded in some ambiguity. There are a couple of possibilities that we may explore. 1 Timothy chapter 2, verse15: But women will be saved through childbearing—"IF" they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety

First, though, we must emphasize this fundamental principle of Bible interpretation. Obscure passages must always be interpreted in the light of more complete revelation. This means that no interpretation is to be placed upon a text that creates a conflict with clear instruction found elsewhere in the sacred volume. The Bible, being the inspired word of God, will be in harmony.

At the outset, let us consider what the passage obviously does not teach.

It does not affirm that the act of “child-bearing” is a personal requisite for a female to be saved. If such were the case, single ladies, along with those who are unable to bear children, would be beyond the pale of redemption—a conclusion that is absurd. Such a circumstance, in many cases would place redemption outside the scope of individual choice—which is not a biblical option.

Additionally, the text does not affirm that any woman who bears a child will be saved. There are clearly defined conditions preliminary to being saved (Mk. 16:15-16; Acts 2:38; 22:16; Rom. 6:3-4; Gal. 3:26-27; 1 Pet. 3:21), and having a child is never listed among them.

Further, the sometimes-stated notion, that this passage contains a pledge that the Christian woman will always be kept safe during the act of bearing children, is equally untenable. Neither the language nor the context will support that view; and, tragically, experience has often demonstrated the fatal danger of childbirth—even for the most godly of women.

What, then, is the meaning of the text? Two prominent views have been advanced by respectable scholars.

Woman’s Role in the Birth of Christ
It is alleged by some that the reference is to woman’s role in producing the Savior of the world. Notwithstanding the fact that woman was the instrument by which sin was introduced into the world, and that her teaching capacity has been limited in some contexts (v. 12), she need not be forlorn. God, by means of his wonderful scheme of redemption, determined to send a Savior for humankind. This Deliverer would come through woman (Gen. 3:15; Gal. 4:4).

Thus, by means of “the woman” (note the article as reflected by the Greek text), the opportunity for salvation has been achieved. In this sense, Paul would be suggesting that all women are potential heirs of salvation because of the role Mary played in the sacred scheme of redemption.

Each woman who wishes to enjoy salvation, however, must embrace the gospel personally, and continue in the faith—if heaven is to be attained ultimately.

Though this is not the most common view of this controversial passage, it has been argued with some force by C.J. Ellicott (1819-1905), professor of divinity at Kings College in London. Ellicott was the chairman of the British New Testament revision committee that produced the English Revised Version (1870-81)[1].

A Figure of Speech
A second view is that the expression “childbearing” reflects a figure of speech, common to the Bible, known as the synecdoche—a part put for the whole, or the whole put for a part. In this case, the former aspect would fit best.

Thus, “childbearing” would represent the totality of the woman’s domestic role which, by divine design, was woven into the very fabric of her being, and for which she is uniquely suited. Even though she is culpable in the human sin problem, nonetheless, the woman plays an important function in the divine scheme of things. The role of wife and mother will grant her great fulfillment, and is a valued contributor to the success of the Christian movement.

Note a couple of comments to this effect.

“Childbearing” includes the rearing of the children, which means Christian rearing to every Christian woman. Paul has in mind what we read in his other letters: the Christian family and home, the mother surrounded by her children, happy in these outlets for her love and affection, in this enrichment of herself and for them, Eph. 6:1, etc.; Col. 3:20. “By way of childbearing” speaks of the highest ideal of Christian (and even secular) womanhood2.

W.E. Vine argued that the thrust of this context is this: In spite of woman’s role in the original transgression, she has a legitimate place in the divine scheme of things. She plays a vital role in the spread of the gospel.

On the one hand, by begetting children she would be saved from becoming a prey to the vices that characterized the world of that day, and which are reproduced in our own time. On the other hand, the woman who brings up a family for God takes an important part in the maintenance of the testimony of the church3.

Similar sentiments could be cited many times over.

Regardless of the intricacies of various views, the thrust of the apostle’s argument is perfectly clear. Yes, woman was deeply involved in the apostasy of the human family, by yielding to Satan’s temptations and falling into deception.

Further, one aspect of her penalty is that certain leadership roles under the Christian regime are denied her. Be that as it may, she is not to despair. God still has many noble and valuable uses for his daughters—the most fulfilling of which is represented in the domestic talents with which she has been blessed so richly and beautifully.

2007-02-10 12:41:20 · answer #4 · answered by just_me_ok 2 · 1 0

definite! i'd like to carry close the prophecy of this revelation. too. even if the verse is really not the comprehend God. or perhaps if it became added by technique of conspiracy to the epistles of paul, that could not be the comprehend God in any respect! obviously it really is an "atypical" verse and paul is a pharisee! obviously interior the D&C of the mormon church scriptures, it really is written that Mankind isn't less than the curse of Adam and eve which could also comprise, the will of ladies human beings to be saved in "childbearing". if this revelation is quite authentic, than obviously the bible is shown back now to not be the comprehend God and not in any respect dictated or God breathed, inspite of the actual shown actuality that Paul became genuinely "inspired". p.s. some human beings practice that being a "nun" is an abomination. and yet glenn kimball makes use of the get collectively of catholic nuns as a tradtion that comes out of the teachings of plural marriage in symbology, that plural marriage became practiced by technique of the church till catholic monks began practise celibacy that is also not the rule of thumb by technique of commandment of God, yet a biblical except to the commandment of God in Genesis. to assert that no man or woman is saved is pretend. maximum quite everyone seems declared to be forgiven via atonement of christ. purely the sons of perdition are lost.

2016-11-26 23:28:42 · answer #5 · answered by withy 4 · 0 0

Sanctification is both inward and outward. Salvation is from GOD..In this case it is saved from the wrath of GOD while bearing and caring for the child.

2007-02-10 12:30:04 · answer #6 · answered by Tribble Macher 6 · 0 2

those who die through child-bearing it happend alot back then. To this day if a women will rather die then have an abortion God will save her.

2007-02-10 12:31:18 · answer #7 · answered by Borinke 1 · 0 2

Maybe because they die in childbirth.

2007-02-10 12:29:47 · answer #8 · answered by tonks_op 7 · 1 1

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