2007-02-09 11:16:15 · 8 answers · asked by topwater 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
It depends on two things: (1) whether the country has an agreement with the U.S. on double-taxation (that usually prevents double taxation); and (2) local tax laws. The question cannot be answered in the same way for all the countries. It really should be asked for a specific country.
2007-02-09 11:27:27 · answer #1 · answered by oy121212 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I was an ex-pat living in the UK, therefore I paid UK taxes, not US. Any holdings I had in the US were subject to US taxes but because I didnt earn enough on interest, it didnt matter. I did have to pay home and car tax as these remained in the US. I worked for the UN in Kosovo, there, I didnt pay ANY tax. It was entirely tax free. Technically you should be taxed at source, ie if youre being paid in another country, they should tax you. If they are not doing this, then you are subject to their taxation law, not the US.
Hope this helps.
2007-02-09 11:35:29 · answer #2 · answered by BigEasy 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I guess they pay tax in the country that they work and live in locally if that is what required,
2007-02-09 11:21:32 · answer #3 · answered by maria fkun 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on where you're at.
You are still required to pay Uncle Sam and possibly your state of residence.
2007-02-09 11:19:48 · answer #4 · answered by Yak Rider 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I assume you mean State Tax, you get to pay them if you still claim residency in a state. But you have to pay Federal taxes regardless.
2007-02-09 11:50:14 · answer #5 · answered by A N 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I pay foreign taxes on my residences.
2007-02-09 11:21:06 · answer #6 · answered by Jackson Leslie 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes and no. I hope this helps.
2007-02-09 11:19:27 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes.
2007-02-09 12:18:49 · answer #8 · answered by thevillageidiotxxxx 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋