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They were shown favor upon Gods eyes,but yet they commited a sin,didn't they?

2007-02-09 10:55:34 · 23 answers · asked by Dat_Gangsta_Chic 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

23 answers

Hey, poor jacob was tricked into having two wives; he didn't realize he was marrying (and having sex with!) the wrong girl.

I don't think abraham had two wives, did he? It was more of a way for him to have children; but with no science it had to be done the old fashioned way.

2007-02-09 11:00:05 · answer #1 · answered by eldad9 6 · 1 1

Abraham committed adultery and bore a child with the handmaiden Haggar. This was NOT OKAY with God. Sarah and Abraham did not trust God to give them a child, as He said he would do. Therefore they had a child, Ishmael, and as a result they were burdened with many heartaches and tribulations. Some Christians (a bit radical, I believe) say that the branch of people that arose from this sinful union are now known as Muslims...
Abraham needed to learn to trust God. Later he received many blessings, but only after he learned his lesson.
Having several wives was customary in those days, and a commitment to each woman was given. Haggar recived no such commitment, and so it was considered adultery. Yes, the reason for the polygamy may have been to populate the earth.There was no reason to limit progeny at that point. There were strict rules for marriage, though, and you had to treat each woman equally.

2007-02-09 11:18:45 · answer #2 · answered by rclorom 2 · 0 0

If everything done is done with the approval of the spouse, it must be the right thing to do. It was not against the law of the land.
Sarah told Abraham to produce a child with Hagar. Gen.16:16; Gen.25:17 his life.

By tradition of the people, Jacob was given the older daughter without his approval, then he still wanted his wife as Rachel, the other two were handmaidens and the wives used them to be mothers to the other children they wanted.
Same with Esau, it was not against the law of the land. It was the traditions of the people.

2007-02-09 11:03:39 · answer #3 · answered by jeni 7 · 1 1

At the time Abraham committed what we call adultery, the Law was not given to him. He had no knowledge of this as sin. He found favour with God because of his faith and belief in God. In many cases where adultery was committed the consequences for doing this act were not good. That is the reason God gave the law actually for your own well being. Many times when we break His laws we suffer greatly for doing so.

2007-02-09 11:05:17 · answer #4 · answered by angel 7 · 0 1

Abraham had Hagar as a second wife because his first wife asked him to so that they could hope for a baby. After his first wife died and Hagar had been sent away Abraham married again. Esau only had one wife. Jacob got tricked by his uncle Laban into marrying the older sister (Leah) of Rachel the woman he had worked for Laban for 7 years to marry and so he was stuck with the first wife through no fault of his own. The Levitical law had not yet been given and even if it had it didn't forbid polygamy, just adultery. However, it has never been in God's perfect will for a man to have more than one wife.

Jesus said "And Pharisees came up to him and tested him by asking, "Is it lawful to divorce one's wife for any cause?" He answered, "Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, 'Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh'? So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate." They said to him, "Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?" He said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery."
(Matthew 19:3-9)

2007-02-09 11:14:57 · answer #5 · answered by Martin S 7 · 1 0

Technicaly, no. In ancient hebrew society, if a man's wife was barren (unable to have children) it was her duty to find someone else to bear her husband's children. This was part of their doctrine and not a sin (it's in the Bible - Leviticus, I think). The "other woman" would still be considered a virgin in the eyes of God, and could then go on to marry another man and have children with him as well. It was a prety smart tactic too - without thie practice, the tribe would have been smaller and more likely to die out over time.

2007-02-09 10:59:10 · answer #6 · answered by Dim 2 · 4 0

that is troublesome to placed a popularity on what she did, yet regardless of the case she is faulty in dissimilar aspects. first of all what's she doing out so previous due with a 16 month previous at domicile? shouldn't she be at domicile with her kinfolk and husband the way maximum wifes will be.? looks to me that she basically wasn't waiting to augment up and be a mom or a spouse for that count number. i'd end those previous due evening visits with her associates she needs to be at domicile at a marvelous hour with her kinfolk no longer out chit talking to her people. And fairly perhaps did somthing take position between those 2 hours you enable her bypass visit with her associates, no longer adult men you dont understand nor approve of. i'd defanenlty confront her about some issues, placed a end to those visits ask why her associates not in any respect come to her position. And search for a marrage counselor. solid success to you...

2016-12-03 23:24:46 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

No. If they had several wives and sex was with one of their wives they did not commit adultery. Obviously polygamy was accepted during this time. It would have only been adultery if they had sex with someone they wasn't married to. Regardless, God hates sin but not us sinners so even if they had committed adultery or any other sin and asked God for forgiveness, He would have forgave.

2007-02-09 11:13:33 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Because it's not adultery if all the wives approve of each other. It's adultery if a man marries or fornicates with a woman who is already married to another man, or if he is married and doesn't tell his other wives about the other woman, or if the wife doesn't accept the other woman but he still has his way. Stupid huh?! Kind of makes you wonder if it was Gods word in the bible or just a bunch of horny men. Women couldn't have multiple husbands, in the bible no matter what this is considered adultery.

2007-02-09 11:04:40 · answer #9 · answered by Agnostic 4 · 1 2

I don't exactly have a knowlegable answer for this, but I'll give it a shot anyway.
I think it was because being monogamus wasn't exactly that important back then. And I'm not sure if the Ten Commandments were in written at that time. I'd have to look into it.

2007-02-09 11:01:42 · answer #10 · answered by Kat™ 3 · 0 0

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