Why does the modern time line include B.C. Berofe Christ??????

Question

And why does Anno Domini translate into latin to "In the year of Our Lord"

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/B.C.

Answer 1

The B.C. question has already been answered, so I won't snag your time with that one. A.D., however, began when Jesus was born, NOT when He died. For the first thirty-three years of the A.D. timeline, Jesus lived. It is "In the year of our Lord" because He was and is among us. Hence, the year is still the year of the Lord.

Answer 2

AD and BC are based upon Jesus. The problem is the start year was off as the bible says Jesus was born during the reign of Herod the Great yet we know he died in 4 BC. So how can Jesus be born 4 years Before Christ? Using BC and AD work but clearly it is not logical or consistent with the supposed facts. Now if you use CE and BCE as mentioned above, you do not have the illogic of Jesus being born 4 years before Jesus being born. You simply say he was born 4 years BEFORE THE COMMON ERA and it all works out logically. Also, the Jews still use the Hebrew calendar when they calculate important stuff such as holy days, which is why their holy days are not the same year to year. Same with the Muslims using their calendar, holy days changing year to year. And when you get right down to it, not even the Christians use their calendar to calculate some of their holy days. For example, Easter is totally independent of ANY calendar. It is calculated as the first Sunday after the first full moon after the spring equinox. (How is that for bringing in the sun and moon worship of the pagans?) Bottom line, use BC and AD if you want, but BCE and CE are more accurate.

Answer 3

"Anno domini" is Latin for "Year of our Dominator" (year of our Lord).

We use these designations as integral parts of our calendar. If we didn't have "BC" and "AD", we wouldn't know that this year was 2007. We'd be stuck calling it "in the 7th year of George Bush"!

(Now THAT would piss off all the liberals!)

The modern use of "BCE" and "CE" are pretty dumb if you think about it. These refer to the "common era", but they refer literally to the "Era of Christ". People who use this are simply removing the subject of the era, they're not changing the recognition of the coming of the Messiah! If they wanted to do that, they should adopt an alternative "era" from which to count. Perhaps the "Age of Reason" era or the "Industrial Revolution" era.

That would change all of our dates. Instead of 2007, we'd be in the year 507 or 207. Otherwise, it makes no sense to take the reason for the era out of the recognition while still secretly recognizing it.

Answer 4

"Anno Domini" translates into "the year of Our Lord" because that's what the Latin means.

BC and AD are falling out of favor in most cases and being replaced with BCE and CE, "Before the Common Era, " and "Common Era."

Do try to keep up, won't you?

Answer 5

>why does Anno Domini translate into latin to "In the year of Our Lord"?

That's the translation, pretty much.

And using six question marks for your first question doesn't mean you don't have to use any for your second one.

Answer 6

It has to do with the person who figured out our timeline. But they do use C.E in most textbooks and scholarly material.

And sense you like this website here is a link for more information for you:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anno_Domini

Answer 7

The Gregorian Calendar was developed by a Pope.

Before that the Julian (after Julius Caesar) Calendar had been adopted by the early Church.

Is it any wonder?

Answer 8

Because the folks that organized the secular Western calendar were Christians. The Persians, Arabs, Jews, and Chinese all use different calendars, as well as others, I am sure..

Answer 9

It doesn't anymore its now BCE Before the Common Era, and CE Common Era. BC and AD are only used by religions now.

Answer 10

Tradition.

Just like how the days of the week are named for Pagan gods and the Roman empire gave us our calendar.