2007-02-09 06:41:09 · 12 answers · asked by mouthbreather77 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Dogma of the Immaculate Conception was hotly debated during the Middle Ages, but we have accept the Immaculate Conception as a Doctrine of Faith since the 1800's because of the theological evidence of it.
2007-02-09 08:15:50 · answer #1 · answered by Maurus B. 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because they made it up afterwords. And, by the way, Mary is not the immaculate conception, Mary was supposedly immaculately conceived (which means born without original sin).
The thing is, they realized they made up this original sin nonsense where everybody starts out as a sinner because some ancestral humans teed off god. That meant that JC would have been born in half sin (sinful mother, sainted father - the opposite of the Irish model). So they made Mary immaculate - without original sin - so the product of the heavenly coupling would not have that taint.
Does this truly make sense to anybody? Even omitting the whole immaculate thing, it's just such total nonsense.
2007-02-09 14:45:59 · answer #2 · answered by Dave P 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
It's in the Bible.
Luke 1
35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
Immaculate Conception is the teaching that Mary was conceived without original sin. Typically believed as true in Roman Catholicism.
2007-02-09 14:52:39 · answer #3 · answered by Jo 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Becaus it is another unbiblical teching of the Catholic church.
* Immaculate Conception of the Virgin Mary, proclaimed by pope Pius IX 1854
2007-02-09 16:02:56 · answer #4 · answered by Freedom 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The concept of Mary being anything more than God's servent was created by the religious leaders of old. The other religions had their female godesses. Athena, ishtar, etc. The concept of making Mary an improtant part of their religion was to draw those that needed a goddess to believe in. Jesus says: " I am the way, the truth and the life, No man comes to the Father except through me." He also tells us to pray in His name. To pray to anyone else is futile prayer. Jesus sits at the right hand of God and makes intercession for us. And ONLY Jesus.
2007-02-09 14:52:47 · answer #5 · answered by momstheword 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The term 'Immaculate Conception' was first penned at Fatima, Portugal in the early 1900's. The Nicene Creed was first penned in the 3rd century.
2007-02-09 14:47:43 · answer #6 · answered by gnostic 4 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Mary isn't the Only Begotten daughter of God. There are no OT prophetic words of this.
She is the Woman (Israel). Jesus is the prophesied Seed of the Woman. Born without sin nature (inherited from man). In Genesis it is written that the seed of the woman would defeat the serpent (sin & death penalty).
A Priest thought this made sense, since Catholic apocryphal books indicate women are evil.
I can discern an apocryphal book because they usually have something against women.
2007-02-09 14:58:01 · answer #7 · answered by t_a_m_i_l 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Immaculate conception was added later, to get more of the locals on board the jesus train.. It was a heavily used concept in religions of the time...
2007-02-09 14:44:35 · answer #8 · answered by XX 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Ka-ching! One of about three reasons I am not Roman Catholic. St. Vincent of Lerins said that to be truly Catholic, a doctrine must have been believed by all, everywhere and for all time.
Immaculate Conception does not fit that mold.
2007-02-09 14:47:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
It is in the Gospel accounts of the Bible and that is the only creed that is necessary.
2007-02-09 14:45:28 · answer #10 · answered by Preacher 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋