2007-02-09 02:08:11 · 18 answers · asked by Nicola A 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ United Kingdom
Why not do away with all the noughts and just think of it as 5 and 3
3 / 5 = 0.6 which equals 60%
Piece of P*ss really
2007-02-09 02:16:55 · answer #1 · answered by I8myjob 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Easiest is 5x2 = 10 (500,000 x 2) and 3x2 = 6 (300,000 x 2) so 6/10 or 60%
2007-02-09 10:13:38 · answer #2 · answered by Gavin V 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
thats simple just take all the 0's off and ur left with 5 and 3 5 x 2 = 10 and 3 x 2 = 6 so now u have 10 and 6 now 10 x 10 = 100 and 6 x 10 = 60 so its 60%
2007-02-10 02:46:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
300,000/500,000 =.60 or, 60%
it's just as easy to dump the 0's first (3/5=.6 or 60%)
2007-02-09 10:15:38 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Take 300,000 and divide by 500,000 and multiply by 100.
The answer is 60%.
2007-02-09 10:12:00 · answer #5 · answered by megalomaniac 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
300,000/500,000=.6=60%
(you divide to find the decimal, and you move the decimal up two spaces, and then you have the percentage. I think I did that right)
2007-02-09 10:14:35 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
You divide the 300000 by the 500000. Start by knocking off the noughts and you are left with 3 fifths. Divide 5 into 3 and you get .6 which is 60% as it is .6 of a hundred. These are very important calculations and you need to practise them until you see the result instantly
2007-02-11 15:41:02 · answer #7 · answered by Professor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
drop all the zeros first since they're the same amount.
Divide 3 by 5 then multiply the answer by 100. That's the percentage.
2007-02-09 10:18:44 · answer #8 · answered by Linda K 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its 60%
multiply 500,000 by 2 = 1,000,000
multiply 300,000 by 2 = 600,000
2007-02-09 10:16:52 · answer #9 · answered by liam0_m 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the figure of part, 300,000 divided by 500,000 (The full) and multiply by 100.
300,000/500,000 = 0.60 * 100 = 60%
2007-02-09 10:15:34 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋