Why those people in the Bible dont have surnames? Is there something to do with their culture? thanks..(serious answer please..)
2007-02-08 16:21:47 · 3 answers · asked by sexyeyes_bluescheeks 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Genealogy
the use of surnames is actually a more modern invention ( relatively speaking) I believe they started gaining in popularity in the middle ages ( i could be wrong) when people started referring to others by profession or by location - eg John of york may have become John York and Robert the Cooper became Robert Cooper. Back in biblical times they did that too, as the other answerer said eg: "jesus of nazarath" but it wasn't as widespread.
2007-02-08 16:32:12 · answer #1 · answered by samina 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think mostly the identifying factors in those days was where they were from like Jesus of Nazareth or their profession or a descriptive word like John the Baptist.
2007-02-09 00:25:29 · answer #2 · answered by justpeachee22 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Ya they don't konw there's father name
2007-02-09 00:25:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋