I love to answer this question,Jesus was not crying out in despair that God had forsaken him .rather he was reciting a psalm of David that actually is a prophecy of his crucifixion written( 500 years? )before the Romans brought Crucifixion to Jerusalem read psalm 22 in its entirity, you will see that by reciting this psalm he was calling to notice that he was the fullfillment of that psalms prophecy.
2007-02-08 06:03:56
·
answer #1
·
answered by matowakan58 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
No. The reason He said that was b/c the reason He came was to take our place on that cross. At the time He said "God my God why have you forsaken me." He then says " It is Done" meaning He has taken on our sin by saying why have you forsaken me. When he says that, it represents our own distrust ( for lake of a better word) You see Jesus knew His purpose and at that point He took on our sin. Once he said that he knew his goal was accomplished. An ordinary man would have died long before Jesus did. He heId on till he took on our sin. I apologize if I didn't word it the way I mean to but I'm sure someone will give you the same answer in a way easier to understand. Any questions feel free to email, I will try to be more clear
2007-02-08 13:58:28
·
answer #2
·
answered by sammyw1024 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
No, Jesus didn't lose faith, Jesus was disconnected from God with all the sin that He had taken. God couldn't accept Him with all the sin of the world so He had to turn His back on His son.
2007-02-08 13:54:31
·
answer #3
·
answered by Alexial Jastire 2
·
2⤊
0⤋
This Psalm is addressed "to the sons of Korah," as its title shows. Now Korah is equivalent to the word baldness; and we find in the Gospel that our Lord Jesus Christ was crucified in "the place of a skull." It is clear then that this Psalm is sung to the "sons of His 'Passion.'" Now we have on this point a most certain and most evident testimony from the Apostle Paul; because that at the time when the Church was suffering under the persecutions of the Gentiles, he quoted from hence a verse, to insert by way of consolation, and encouragement to patience. For that which he inserted in his Epistle, is said here: "For Your sake are we killed all the day long; we are counted as sheep for the slaughter." Romans 8:36 Let us then hear in this Psalm the voice of the Martyrs; and see how good is the cause which the voice of the Martyrs pleads, saying, For Your sake, etc.…
The title then is not simply "To the sons of Korah," but, "For understanding, to the sons of Korah." This is the case also with that Psalm, the first verse of which the Lord Himself uttered on the Cross: "My God, My God, look upon Me; why have You forsaken Me?" For "transferring us in a figure" 1 Corinthians 4:6 to what He was saying, and to His own Body (for we are also "His Body," and He is our "Head"), He uttered from the Cross not His own cry, but ours. For God never "forsook" Him: nor did He Himself ever depart from the Father; but it was in behalf of us that He spoke this: "My God, My God, why have you forsaken Me?" For there follows, "Far from My health are the words of My offences:" and it shows in whose person He said this; for sin could not be found in Him.…
2007-02-08 13:53:43
·
answer #4
·
answered by St. Mike 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
Actually, it's believed he was quoting Psalms 22:1, which does begin with "My God, My God, Why have you Forsaken me?"
1 My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring?
It's a long, but very beautiful psalm.
2007-02-08 13:55:58
·
answer #5
·
answered by sister steph 6
·
1⤊
1⤋
Arthur explained it well.
Jesus was without sin His whole life, and was very used to feeling His father's presence, or some direct connection with Him.
It was the only time Jesus ever felt that connection broken.
2007-02-08 14:02:15
·
answer #6
·
answered by daisyk 6
·
1⤊
0⤋
Even in this time of tremendous pain and suffering my Lord turned to the scripture to express His feelings. Jim
Psalms 22:1
My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring?
2007-02-08 13:55:50
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
Jesus Christ said "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me" because at that moment God, the Father had to leave Him because He was dirty with all of the sins of mankind. Anything filthy with sins cannot dwell in the presence of God; therefore, during that time that Jesus was guilty of all of our sins he could not be in the presence of the Father. So the Father left Him so that Jesus could complete the Atonement for all of mankind.
2007-02-08 13:53:53
·
answer #8
·
answered by Arthur 1
·
11⤊
1⤋
my belief is that we know God can not look upon sin and Jesus accepted all sin,no He did not lose faith but was dying for all sin so that we could be saved by grace
2007-02-08 14:00:40
·
answer #9
·
answered by loveChrist 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
That is a very good question...He knew He was dying but He also knew He would be raised after 3 days..I think maybe the pain was too unbearable, I mean yeah, He was without sin, but He was human and could feel pain like the rest of us...
2007-02-08 13:54:17
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
2⤋