There is a prophetic statement ib many Islamic books about one of prophet Muhammed's companions who told prophet Muhammed that he wanted to marry a woman who was very beautiful and wealthy, but her only problem was that she could not get pregnant. Prophet Muhammed did not allow the man to marry that woman.
After a few days the man asked prophet Muhammed again for his permission to marry the woman and prophet Muhammed refused.
After few more days the man insisted to ask prophet Muhammad again for the permission and prophet Muhammad insisted on refusing that marriage and told the man the he should marry a fertile woman because he wants Muslim population to grow.
I am asking whether that was some kind of racism against unfertile women?
2007-02-08 05:10:36 · 6 answers · asked by Bionimetiket 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Okay, what if in today's world some one wants to marry an AIDS patient and his teacher wants to prevent him. Is it racism from the part of teacher or is it because the teacher thinks, comparitively the overall benefit for the society can be achieved better if the person not caught with AIDS does not marry the AIDS patient.
2007-02-08 05:43:06 · answer #1 · answered by Indra 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. It's a control issue. Muhammad was a mere mortal who wanted to have control over his followers. I hope the guy went against Muhammad's wishes and married her anyway. If he (Muhammad) were a true man of God, he would ask that the woman be made fertile and able to procreate.
2007-02-08 05:21:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no thats not true what muhamed said is that it is better to marry a women that can give birth cuz its forbidin in islam to get married without wanting to have kids
2007-02-08 05:17:31 · answer #3 · answered by alex 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I am a Muslim,,,and i dont think the things you said are even true. People like you,,spread bad words and wrong teachings,,,and increase hatred in the word.
I would like to know where you read that and if its from a genuine source.
2007-02-08 05:20:46 · answer #4 · answered by jinie 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
i havent heard of this b4 cud u post the source and the name of the companion???????
if its true did u try searching 2 da reason y????
what ill tell u is dat one of prophet muhammed(saw)'s daughter umme kuslum(r.a) was married 2 aun bin jafar after her 1st husband umar(r.a) died she had no children from aun bin jafar so if wat ur sayin is true then y dint aun bin jafar divorce her 4 not being able 2 bear his child????
n wid the lame answers given above i dunno y ppl comment on stuff they dun even knw abt or dun even try 2 find the truth n jus believe nethin ppl say.
2007-02-08 05:35:58 · answer #5 · answered by NS 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Naw, it's just more of the same with religion, hypocritical and/or extremist gods telling people to do this or that with no questions asked.
Maybe he didn't want the dude marrying a sterile woman because without kids he wouldn't have another generation of mindless drones to command.
2007-02-08 05:14:27 · answer #6 · answered by timster1984 2 · 1⤊ 3⤋