In the catholic church they always said "The miracle of Five loaves and two fishes"
Why would they say "fishes" when the plural of fish is "fish"?
2007-02-08 03:03:57 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
In greek, there are not words that can be plural without changing the word, ie. adding an "s" or "es" etc. Since the new testament was translated from Greek into English, somewhere in the mix the grammer rules got lost in translation, and this incorrect term was created. Now after years of tradition it is to engrained in our minds and the minds of priests.
2007-02-08 03:13:39 · answer #1 · answered by jonathanzila 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The plural form of "fishes" is usually reserved only for referring to multiple species of fish in a collection. However, the plural form "fish" refers to multiple fish of the same species.
However, most of the versions of the Bible refer to the 5 loaves and 2 "fish", with the exception of the King James Version, which was translated hundreds of years ago. Inasmuch, this use of "fishes" may be an archaic use of the word.
Your Catholic friends must have read much from the KJV and just repeated it so often, that's the phrase that was in their head when they referred to it.
2007-02-08 03:14:57 · answer #2 · answered by thisisnotadream 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The 5 loaves and both fishes. were for his disciples. He used that to feed the 5000. If it turned right into a trick. Then how did he do it? if you're so smart. are you able to stumble on a magician who can feed 5000 human beings? If not then by technique of what acceptable do you should assert it became magic. are you able to practice it became magic? if so then practice quite everyone for all to work out. shall we see you do it.
2016-11-26 02:37:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
What is the plural us of fish today was not always the case. The old English plural of Fish is fishes (KVJ).
they just like the old English word usage; no big deal!,
2007-02-08 03:12:24 · answer #4 · answered by Steve R 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
technically fish is right... but... its kinda moot
Jesus did it twice...
in Jewish territory he multiplied a little boys lunch and there were 12 backets of leftovers, one for each tribe of Israel so to speak
in gentile territory, he multplied fish and loaves and made 7 large hampers of leftovers, one for each of the 7 nations scattered from canaan so to speak
Jesus is demonstrated to be the provider for both Jews and Gentiles in these miracles
2007-02-08 03:09:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That story is the first bible story that made me start doubting the existance of god. In my 5 year old mind I just couldn't grasp that this could be true.
2007-02-08 03:13:03 · answer #6 · answered by Stormilutionist Chasealogist 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I do not think they still say that but, way back that is how people talked. I don't understand why you would bring something so trivial up against the Catholic Church, that's just wierd.
2007-02-08 03:26:16 · answer #7 · answered by Midge 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Merriam Webster's dictionary says either fish or fishes is correct.
2007-02-08 03:09:31 · answer #8 · answered by Adoptive Father 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yeah, that is fishy. They like to make their own rules.; )
2007-02-08 03:16:38 · answer #9 · answered by SeeTheLight 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Now this is a cool question! They could say, "fishies".
2007-02-08 03:12:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋