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please include where abouts in the bible too. where there any gays in the bible?

2007-02-08 00:34:36 · 17 answers · asked by gooner1972 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

Mary was a dyke as she wouldnt give it up to Joseph, and had to be artificially inseminated by the big gynaecologist in the sky, so she could have a baby with her gay lover, Mary Christmas

2007-02-08 00:38:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 6

Genesis19:5 Leviticus18:22,23; 20:13 Deuteronomy23:17 Judges19:22-24 1st Samual18:1-4; 20:17-41 2nd Samual1:26; 19:1-6 1st Kings15:12;14:24 Job36:14 Joel3:3 Romans1:24-27 1st Corinthians6:9-10 1st Timothy:1:10 Revelation17:5.

2007-02-08 02:04:57 · answer #2 · answered by ? 7 · 2 1

No Jesus didn’t say a word about gays. There are some stupid parts of the bible that are always being "selectively" quoted. You’ll find them in the same sections that deal with sins and abominations. Eating shrimp, crab, lobster, clams, mussels, all these are an abomination before the Lord (just like being gay). There are tons of other laughable things that ALL Christians do and that are ALL sins and abominations. You’ll also get guidelines on how to treat your slaves and how they’ll be your PROPERTY. There’s dozens of silly things that will keep you amused for hours. If you just follow the loving word of Jesus you’ll be fine and ignore all that other rubbish because that’s what 100% of Christians do. I can’t find any part where Jesus says “I want you to abuse gays and call them perverts, paedophiles, poofs, shirtlifters, homo’s, dykes, fudge packers, f@gs...” etc. Maybe the loving Christians who use this site have a direct line to Jesus and he tells them all these things personally. On the other hand, maybe they’re just moronic homophobes who like to abuse others. I wonder how Jesus would feel about that?

2007-02-09 14:39:15 · answer #3 · answered by pissed off with abuse, goodbye! 2 · 0 0

The Bible interior the unique languages by no potential mentioned it replaced into incorrect to be gay, bi or lesbian. Even Lev. 18:22 is incorrect interior the English Bibles. (hint: in Hebrew, the verse is composed of the word "mishkvei ishah" meaning "in a woman's mattress." The translators chosen to curl it to advise "as with womankind.") in case you extremely should be attentive to what scripture initially mentioned approximately homosexuality, see the positioning under. that is purely the translations of the final 4 hundred years that decision it a sin.

2016-11-02 21:20:35 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Hi Gooner,it is difficult to answer questions like this without seeming to be judgemental and I certainly cannot judge anyone but in the Old Testament,Genesis 18: 19, it tells about the depravity of Sodom,were all manner of things went on against Gods will.
God sent two Angels to Lot to inform him of Gods plan for Sodom and Gomorrah and while they were staying with Lot,men from Sodom came to have sexual relations with them,however the Angels struck these men blind as punishment.
It seems by these accounts of Sodom and Gomorrah that all concievable sexual practises were going on and certainly homosexuality was rife among them.

2007-02-08 00:48:30 · answer #5 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 0 0

Not as much as you might think and perhaps not in the way you've been told. For instance Sodom and Gomorrah: read the pre-amble it puts a totally different spin on the story. The cities were destroyed not because the inhabitants were gay, but because they were wicked people.

2007-02-08 08:10:28 · answer #6 · answered by mesun1408 6 · 1 0

The story of Sodom & Gomorrah makes no specific mention of homosexuality, the sins are actually listed and homosexuality is not there. The story is not about homosexuality at all. Attempted rape of angels is nothing to do with homosexuality, angels are not men no matter what guise they are under. The story is really stupid anyway, it saves a man Lot who so devalues women that he offers his own daughters to be raped by these so-called homosexuals, now why would you offer women to homosexuals? ...nonsense!! later he gets drunk and has incestuous sex with his daughters and they get pregnant by him...I mean give me a break!!!
How gullible do you think homophobic people are?...very I guess.

2007-02-08 01:04:13 · answer #7 · answered by CHEESUS GROYST 5 · 2 0

Yes, In Genesis I'm sorry don't remember which chapter and verse but, it is when God sends the Angels to Lot and his family before God destroys Sodam and Gomorrah , they are in Lot's house and the crowd yells at him to ",send them out , so we may KNOW them" (and not just to say Hi if you know what I mean),at this point Lot offers the crowd his daughters instead of the Angels but the crowd wants the (male)Angels.

2007-02-08 00:46:48 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes, they are mentioned -- but never in a positive way.

Genesis speaks of homosexual perverts who wanted to have relations with the men staying with Lot in the city of Sodom. God blinds the perverts so that Lot and his family can escape. Soon after, God destroys this utterly wicked city.

In Romans, Paul speaks of people who have forsaken natural urges by having relations with members of the same sex. And he doesn't mention them in a complimentary way, to put it mildly.

Leviticus condemns homosexual acts in the clearest words possible.

True, the Old Testament contains lots of rules and teachings that we don't follow anymore -- but that's only because they've either become societally outdated, or because they were replaced by new teachings in the New Testament.

But neither of these situations applies to homosexuality. Nothing in the New Testament replaces Leviticus' condemnations on homosexuality. On the contrary, the NT backs up and reaffirms the OT condemnations of homosexual acts.

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2007-02-08 00:56:53 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Where do you think sodomy comes from, Sodom and Gomorah plsu others were raised to the ground because of the "unnatural vice" within. Genesis 19:24-25

The western bible is a work of ficton written by a 16th century King to sanction his personal beliefs and spread of the Catholic church so he could make more money! It don't mean nothing about anything to do with God's will!

2007-02-08 00:45:05 · answer #10 · answered by WeirdNA 2 · 0 3

I only know of one a verse which states man shall not lie with man. I am sorry I dont remember where it is at in the bible as i left the faith years and years ago.

2007-02-08 00:41:13 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

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