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For someone who is widely known like Osama Bin Laden. According to Arabic language rules, is it a common thing to address him only as "bin laden" since he is a widely known person? Or we address him as ibn laden? (assumed that his first name "Osama is not used)

Please explain. Thanks

2007-02-07 20:30:08 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

5 answers

ibn is mean the son
but in arabic grammer we must change ibn to bin if we want to put it between two names as "Osama Bin Laden" and if we use it for only one name we can say "ibn laden" that what we learned in school i wish i help

2007-02-07 20:49:27 · answer #1 · answered by hatota 3 · 4 0

its the arabic grammars.

Ibn when there is no first name
bin when its between two names

it can be both.
Osama Bin Laden
Ibn Laden

2007-02-07 21:00:41 · answer #2 · answered by الحقيقة 4 · 3 0

ibn means son of
Ibn Ahmet = Ahmet's son.
It uses as a surname for Arab's.
But bin I dont know so much. I hate that name also.

2007-02-07 20:43:31 · answer #3 · answered by hanibal 5 · 0 1

its the same difference. my explanation is that arabic is so widely spread that a lot of its words have different ways of spelling in roman letters. such as, in my country (Indonesia), we say it: 'Assalamu'alaikum', while in african countries: 'Salam Allekum.',

2007-02-07 20:34:48 · answer #4 · answered by sk|TTLes™ 6 · 1 1

i want to know how come he is still loose how can you not catch such a tall guy amongst a bunch of midgets that follow him never mind how to spell his name not to be mean but that is like after Hiroshima and you are sitting in a pile of rubble with flesh falling off your bones and someone asks you for suntan lotion

2007-02-07 20:39:16 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

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